AN ACT CONCERNING CONSUMER PROTECTION, CANNABIS, DATA PRIVACY, FIRE INSPECTIONS, CRIMINAL MISCHIEF AND ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE.

Substitute House Bill No. 5222

Public Act No. 26-100

AN ACT CONCERNING CONSUMER PROTECTION, CANNABIS,
DATA PRIVACY, FIRE INSPECTIONS, CRIMINAL MISCHIEF AND
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General
Assembly convened:

Section 1. Section 20 -295b of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) Any person who, on October 1, 1969, holds a certificate of
authority or renewal issued pursuant to sections 20 -295 and 20-295a of
the general statutes, revised to 1968, shall be entered on the roster of
licensed architects and shall thereafter be autho rized and entitled to
practice architecture in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.
(b) An architect licensed in this state may perform the work of an
interior designer as prescribed in chapter 396a without obtaining a
certificate of registration as an interior designer under said chapter.
[Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, an architect licensed
in this state shall not be required to satisfy the continuing education
requirements for registered interior designers established in subsections
(f) and (g) of section 20 -377s if such architect satisfies all continuing
education requirements set forth in this chapter necessary for such
architect to maintain such license.]
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(c) An architect licensed in this state who holds a certificate of
registration as an interior designer issued under chapter 396a shall be
subject to [(1) the continuing education requirements for registered
interior designers established in subsections (f) and (g) of section 20 -
377s, and (2) ] the fee for renewal of such certificate of registration
established in subsection (e) of section 20-377s, as amended by this act.
Sec. 2. Section 20 -305 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
Applications for licensure under this chapter shall be on forms
prescribed and furnished by the Department of Consumer Protection.
The nonrefundable application fee for a professional engineer license
shall be eighty dollars. The nonrefundable application fee for an
engineer-in-training license shall be seventy -six dollars, which shall
accompany the application and which shall include the cost of the
issuance of a license. The nonrefundable application fee for a land
surveyor license shall be eighty dollars. The nonrefundable application
fee for a surveyor -in-training license shall be sixty -four dollars, which
shall accompany the application and which shall include the cost of the
issuance of a license. The initial license fee for a professional engineer
license or a land surveyor license shall be [two hundred twenty ] four
hundred forty dollars. The application fee for a combined license as
professional engineer and land surveyor shall be eighty dollars. The
initial license fee for such combined license shall be [two hundred
twenty] four hundred forty dollars.
Sec. 3. Section 20 -306 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) [(1)] The Department of Consumer Protection shall notify each
person licensed under this chapter of the date of the expiration of such
license and the amount of the fee required for its renewal for [one year]
two years. Such license renewals shall be accompanied by the payment
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of [the professional services fee for class G, as defined in section 33-182l,]
five hundred seventy dollars in the case of a professional engineer
license, a professional engineer and land surveyor combined license, or
a land surveyor license. The license shall be considered lapsed if not
renewed on or before the expiration date.
[(2) Annual] (b) Biennial renewal of an engineer-in-training license or
a surveyor -in-training license shall not be required. Any such license
shall remain valid for a period of ten years from the date of its original
issuance and, during this time, it shall meet in part the requirements for
licensure as a professional engineer or land surveyor. It shall not be the
duty of the department to notify the holder of an engineer -in-training
license or a surveyor-in-training license of the date of expiration of such
license other than to publish it annually in the roster.
[(3)] (c) Renewal of any license under this chapter or payment of
renewal fees shall not be required of any licensee serving in the armed
forces of the United States until the next renewal period immediately
following the termination of such service or the renewal p eriod
following the fifth year after such licensee's entry into such service,
whichever occurs first. The status of such licensees shall be indicated in
the annual roster of professional engineers and land surveyors.
[(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section
concerning fees, any person who is licensed under the provisions of this
chapter, who is age sixty -five or over and who is no longer actively
engaged in the practice of engineering or any of its branches, or land
surveying, may renew such license annually upon payment of the
professional services fee for class A, as defined in section 33-182l.]
Sec. 4. Subsection (a) of section 20 -308 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
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(a) The board may, upon application and the payment of a fee of [one
hundred ninety ] three hundred eighty dollars to the Department of
Consumer Protection, authorize the department to issue a license as a
professional engineer, or a combined license as a professional engineer
and land surveyor or, upon application and the payment of a fee of [one
hundred ninety] three hundred eighty dollars, to issue a license as a land
surveyor to any person who holds a certificate of qualification, licensure
or registrati on issued to such person by the proper authority of any
state, territory or possession of the United States, or any country, or the
National Bureau of Engineering Registration, provided the
requirements for the licensure or registration of professional eng ineers
or land surveyors under which such license, certificate of qualification
or registration was issued shall not conflict with the provisions of this
chapter and shall be of a standard not lower than that specified in
section 20-302. Upon request of an y such applicant the board may, if it
determines that the application is in apparent good order, authorize the
department to grant to such applicant permission in writing to practice
engineering or land surveying or both for a specified period of time
while such application is pending. The board may waive the first part
of the examination specified in subdivision (1) of section 20 -302 in the
case of an applicant for licensure as a professional engineer who holds
a certificate as an engineer -in-training issu ed to him by the proper
authority of any state, territory or possession of the United States,
provided the requirements under which the certificate was issued do
not conflict with the provisions of this chapter and are of a standard at
least equal to that specified in said subdivision (1). The board may waive
that part of the examination specified in subdivision (3) of section 20 -
302 relating to the fundamentals of land surveying, in the case of an
applicant for licensure as a land surveyor who holds a cert ificate as a
surveyor-in-training issued to him by the proper authority of any state,
territory or possession of the United States, provided the requirements
under which the certificate was issued do not conflict with the
provisions of this chapter and are of a standard at least equal to that
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specified in said subdivision (3).
Sec. 5. Subsection (c) of section 20 -314 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1,
2026):
(c) In order to determine the competency of any applicant for a real
estate licensee's license, the commission or Commissioner of Consumer
Protection shall, on payment of an application fee of one hundred
twenty dollars by an applicant for a real estate broker 's license or an
application fee of eighty dollars by an applicant for a real estate
salesperson's license, subject such applicant to personal written
examination as to the applicant's competency to act as a real estate
broker or real estate salesperson, as the case may be. Each examination
shall be prepared by the department or by a national testing service
designated by the commissioner and shall be administered to applicants
by the department or by such testing service at such times and places as
the commissioner may deem necessary. The commission or
commissioner may waive the uniform portion of the written
examination requirement in the case of an applicant who has taken the
national testing service examination in another state within two years
from the date of application and has received a score deemed
satisfactory by the commission or commissioner. An applicant shall
submit to the commission or commissioner evidence that the applicant
has successfully completed the final examination for the real estate
license for which such applicant has applied, which successful
completion shall occur within two yea rs from the date of application
unless the applicant submits to the commission a written request for,
and the commission grants, a hardship extension o f such two -year
period. The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in accordance with
chapter 54, establishing passing scores for examinations. In addition to
such application fee, applicants taking the examination administered by
a national testing service shall be required to pay directly to such testing
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service an examination fee covering the cost of such examination. Each
payment of such application fee shall entitle the applicant to take such
examination within the one-year period from the date of payment.
Sec. 6. Subdivision (3) of section 20 -330 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof ( Effective from
passage):
(3) "Plumbing and piping work" means the installation, repair,
replacement, alteration, maintenance, inspection or testing of
alternative fuels, petroleum -based products, gas, water and associated
fixtures, tubing and piping mains and branch lines up to and including
the closest valve to a machine or equipment used in the manufacturing
process, laboratory equipment, sanitary equipment, other than
subsurface sewage disposal systems, fire prevention apparatus, all
water systems for human usage, sewage treatme nt facilities and all
associated fittings within a building and includes lateral storm and
sanitary lines from buildings to the mains, process piping, swimming
pools and pumping equipment, and includes making connections to
back flow prevention devices, an d includes low voltage wiring, not
exceeding twenty-four volts, used within a lawn sprinkler system, but
does not include (A) solar thermal work performed pursuant to a
certificate held as provided in section 20 -334g, except for the repair of
those portions of a solar hot water heating system that include the basic
domestic hot water tank and the tie -in to the potable water system, (B)
the installation, repair, replacement, alteration, maintenance, inspection
or testing of fire prevention apparatus within a structure, except for
standpipes that are not connected to sprinkler systems, (C) medical gas
and vacuum systems work, and (D) millwright work. For the purposes
of this subdivision, "process piping" means piping or tubing that
conveys liquid or gas that i s used directly in the production of a
chemical or a product for human consumption;
Sec. 7. Section 20 -337 of the general statutes is repealed and the
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following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) Nothing in this chapter shall require that the ownership or control
of a business engaged in providing the work or services licensed under
the provisions of this chapter be vested in a person licensed under this
chapter, but all the work and services set forth in section 20 -330, as
amended by this act, shall be performed by persons licensed for such
work or occupation under this chapter.
(b) (1) A business engaged in providing any work or services licensed
under the provisions of this chapter shall (A) designate a contractor of
record, and (B) disclose to the Department of Consumer Protection, in a
form and manner prescribed by the Commiss ioner of Consumer
Protection, (i) the name, telephone number and electronic mail address
of such designated contractor of record, and (ii) any change in the
information disclosed to the department pursuant to subparagraph
(B)(i) of this subdivision, includ ing, but not limited to, any change in
such information due to the designation of a substitute contractor of
record, not later than ten days after such change occurs.
(2) Each contractor of record designated pursuant to subdivision (1)
of this subsection shall be (A) an owner or direct employee of the
business, (B) licensed, in good standing, under this chapter to perform
the work or services provided by the business, ( C) regularly engaged
with the business while such business is engaged in providing any work
or services licensed under the provisions of this chapter, and (D)
responsible for acting on behalf of the business in obtaining any
building permit required by such business.
(3) No contractor of record designated pursuant to subdivision (1) of
this subsection who is a direct employee of the business shall serve as
the designated contractor of record for more than one business at any
time.
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(4) For purposes of this subsection, "direct employee" (A) means an
individual whose (i) manner and means of work performance are
subject to the right of control of, or are controlled by, the business, and
(ii) compensation is reported, or required to be r eported, on a federal
Form W-2 issued by, or caused to be issued by, the business, and (B)
does not include any individual who is an independent contractor,
subcontractor or consultant of the business.
Sec. 8. Section 20 -377s of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) A registered interior designer shall include his or her certificate of
registration number in any advertisement and may include his or her
certificate of registration number in any written communication.
(b) No person shall: (1) Present or attempt to present, as his or her
own, the certificate of another, (2) knowingly give false evidence of a
material nature to the commissioner for the purpose of procuring a
certificate, (3) use or attempt to use a certificat e which has expired or
which has been suspended or revoked, (4) represent himself or herself
falsely as, or impersonate, a registered interior designer, or (5) represent
in any manner that his or her certificate of registration constitutes an
endorsement of the quality of his or her workmanship or of his or her
competency by the commissioner.
(c) Certificates of registration issued to an interior designer shall not
be transferable or assignable.
(d) All certificates of registration issued under the provisions of
sections 20-377k to 20-377v, inclusive, shall expire annually.
(e) A registered interior designer may apply for renewal of a
certificate of registration. The fee for renewal of such certificate of
registration shall be one hundred ninety dollars, provided any architect
licensed in this state shall not be required to pay such fee.
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[(f) A registered interior designer shall complete a minimum of four
hours of continuing education every three years. Such three-year period
shall commence on the first date of renewal of the applicant's certificate
of registration on or after October 1, 2015. The continuing education
shall be in areas related to the application of the State Building Code and
the Fire Safety Code.
(g) A registered interior designer who applies for a renewal of a
certificate of registration on or after October 1, 2018, shall sign a
statement on a form prescribed by the commissioner attesting that he or
she has satisfied the continuing education requirements of subsection (f)
of this section. Such applicant shall retain records of attendance or
certificates of completion that demonstrate compliance with such
continuing education requirements for a minimum of three years
following the year in which the continuing education activities were
completed. Such applicant shall submit such records to the
commissioner for inspection not later than forty-five days after a request
by the commissioner for such records.]
Sec. 9. Subdivision (5) of section 20 -670 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof ( Effective from
passage):
(5) "Comprehensive background check" means a background
investigation of a prospective employee performed by a homemaker -
companion agency, that includes (A) a review of any application
materials prepared or requested by the homemaker-companion agency
and completed by the prospective employee, (B) an in-person or video-
conference interview of the prospective employee, (C) verification of the
prospective employee's Social Security number, (D) if the prospective
employee has applied for a position within the homemaker-companion
agency that requires licensure on the part of such prospective employee,
verification that the required license is in good standing, (E) a check of
the registry established and maintained pursuant to section 54 -257, (F)
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a [local] state and national criminal background check of criminal
matters of public record based on the prospective employee's name and
date of birth that includes a search of a multistate and multijurisdiction
criminal record locator or other similar commercial nationw ide
database with validation, and a search of the United States Department
of Justice National Sex Offender Public Website, conducted by a third -
party consumer reporting agency or background screening company
that is accredited by the Professional Background Screening Association
and in compliance with the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act, (G) if the
prospective employee has resided in this state for less than three years
prior to the date of such prospective employee's application with the
homemaker-companion agency, a review of criminal conviction
information from the state or states where such prospective employee
resided during such three -year period, and (H) a review of any other
information that the homemaker-companion agency deems necessary in
order to evaluate the suitability of the prospective employee for the
position.
Sec. 10. Section 21a -39 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2026):
(a) As used in this section, "adulterated" has the same meaning as
provided in section 21a-101.
[(a)] (b) No person shall sell or offer or expose for sale in any
establishment or vending machine, or have in [his] such person's
possession with intent to sell therefrom, any food, beverage or
ingredient which is adulterated or misbranded.
[(b)] (c) The commissioner may cause samples of any food, beverage
or ingredient so sold, offered, exposed or possessed to be taken and
examined as often as may be necessary to determine freedom from
adulteration or misbranding. Upon written notice to the establishment
or vending machine operator, the commissioner may [impound and ]
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take the following actions to protect public health and safety: (1)
Impound any food or beverage which is adulterated or misbranded; (2)
forbid the sale of any food or beverage which is adulterated or
misbranded; and [, after hearing,] (3) prohibit such establishment from
selling or offering for sale any food or beverage which was adulterated
or misbranded until the conditions that caused such adulteration or
misbranding, and are likely to cause future adulteration or
misbranding, have been remedied.
(d) After a hearing, the commissioner may cause any [such]
adulterated or misbranded food or beverage to be destroyed, provided,
in the case of misbranding which may be corrected by proper labeling,
the commissioner may release such food or beverage to the
establishment or vending machine operator upon corrective action
being taken.
Sec. 11. Subsection (a) of section 21a -430 of the 2026 supplement to
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective July 1, 2026):
(a) No person shall place or cause to be placed in a public place a
donation bin for the donation of clothing or other articles unless (1) such
person obtains advance written consent from the owner of such public
place, or such owner's duly authorized agen t, to place such donation
bin, or cause such bin to be placed, in such public place, and (2) such bin
contains a notice, in block letters at least two inches high, stating, (A) if
the donation is for a charitable purpose, (i) the name of the nonprofit
organization that will benefit from the donation, (ii) the charity
registration number the Department of Consumer Protection issued to
the nonprofit organization, (iii) the name and contact information of the
owner of such bin, and [(iii)] (iv) that the public may contact the
Department of Consumer Protection for further information, or (B) if not
intended for a charitable purpose, that such donation is not for a
charitable purpose. Such notice shall be on the same side of the bin
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where the donation is likely to be made. As used in this section, "public
place" means any area that is used or held out for use by the public,
whether owned or operated by public or private interests, and "donation
bin" means a large container commonly pl aced in a parking lot for the
purpose of encouraging individuals to donate clothing or other items.
Sec. 12. Subsection (a) of section 51 -344a of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof ( Effective from
passage):
(a) Whenever the term "judicial district of Hartford -New Britain" or
"judicial district of Hartford-New Britain at Hartford" is used or referred
to in the following sections of the general statutes, it shall be deemed to
mean or refer to the judicial district of Hartford on and after September
1, 1998: Sections 2 -48, 3 -21a, 3 -62d, 3 -70a, 3 -71a, 4 -61, 4 -160, 4 -164, 4 -
177b, 4-180, 4-183, 4-197, 5-202, 5-276a, 8-30g, 9-7a, 9-7b, 9-369b, 10-153e,
12-208, 12-237, 12-268l, 12-312, 12-330m, 12-405k, 12-422, 12-448, 12-454,
12-456, 12-463, 12-489, 12-522, 12-554, 12-565, 12-572, 12-586f, 12-597, 12-
730, 13b-34, 13b-235, 13b-315, 13b-375, 14-57, 14-66, 14-67u, 14-110, 14-
195, 14-311, 14-311c, 14-324, 14-331, 15-125, 15-126, 16-41, 16a-5, 17b-60,
17b-100, 17b-238, 17b-531, 19a-85, 19a-86, 19a-425, 19a-498, 19a-517, 19a-
526, 19a-633, 20-12f, 20-13e, 20-29, 20-40, 20-45, 20-59, 20-73a, 20-86f, 20-
99, 20-114, 20-133, 20-154, 20-156, 20-162p, 20-192, 20-195p, 20-202, 20-
206c, 20-227, 20-238, 20-247, 20-263, 20-271, 20-307, 20-341f, 20-363, 20-
373, 20 -404, 20 -414, 21a -55, 21a -190i, 22 -7, 22 -228, 22 -248, 22 -254, 22 -
320d, 22-326a, 22-344b, 22-386, 22a-6b, 22a-7, 22a-16, 22a-30, 22a-34, 22a-
53, 22a-60, 22a-62, 22a-63, 22a-66h, 22a-106a, 22a-119, 22a-180, 22a-182a,
22a-184, 22a -220a, 22a -220d, 22a -225, 22a -226, 22a -226c, 22a -227, 22a -
250, 22a-255l, 22a-276, 22a-310, 22a-342a, 22a-344, 22a-361a, 22a-374, 22a-
376, 22a-408, 22a-430, 22a-432, 22a-438, 22a-449f, 22a-449g, 22a-459, 23-
5e, 23-65m, 25-32e, 25-36, 28-5, 29-143j, 29-158, 29-161z, 29-323, 30-8, 31-
109, 31-249b, 31-266, 31-266a, 31-270, 31-273, 31-284, 31-285, 31-339, 31-
355a, 31-379, 35-3c, 35-42, 36a-186, 36a-187, 36a-471a, 36a-494, 36a-587,
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36a-647, 36a-684, 36a-718, 36a-807, 36b-26, 36b-27, 36b-30, 36b-50, 36b-
71, 36b-72, 36b-74, 36b-76, 38a-41, 38a-52, 38a-134, 38a-139, 38a-140, 38a-
147, 38a-150, 38a-185, 38a-209, 38a-225, 38a-226b, 38a-241, 38a-337, 38a-
470, 38a-620, 38a-657, 38a-687, 38a-774, 38a-776, 38a-817, 38a-843, 38a-
868, 38a-906, 38a-994, [42-103c,] 42-110d, 42-110k, 42-110p, 42-182, 46a-
56, 46a-100, 47a-21, 49-73, 51-44a, 51-81b, 51-194, 52-146j, 53-392d and
54-211a.
Sec. 13. Section 20 -324a of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
The commission shall establish, and the department shall maintain, a
Real Estate Guaranty Fund from which, subject to the provisions of this
section and sections 20-324b to 20-324i, inclusive, any person aggrieved
by any action of a real estate licensee, duly licensed in this state under
section 20-312, by reason of the embezzlement of money or property, or
money or property unlawfully obtained from any person by false
pretenses, artifice or forgery or by reason of any fraud,
misrepresentation or deceit by or on the part of any such real estate
licensee or the unlicensed employee of any such real estate licensee, may
recover, upon approval by the [commission] department of an
application brought pursuant to the provisions of section 20 -324e, as
amended by this act, compensation in an amount not exceeding in the
aggregate the sum of twenty -five thousand dollars in connection with
any one real estate transaction or claim, regardless of the number of
persons aggrieved or parcels of real estate involved in such r eal estate
transaction or claim.
Sec. 14. Section 20 -324c of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
The [commission] department shall maintain the Real Estate
Guaranty Fund at a level not to exceed five hundred thousand dollars
and to this intent moneys received under section 20 -324b shall be
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credited to said fund whenever the fund balance is below five hundred
thousand dollars. Any such moneys may be invested or reinvested in
the same manner as funds of the state employees retirement system. The
interest arising from such investments shall be credited to the Real
Estate Guaranty Fund whenever the fund balance is below five hundred
thousand dollars, and to the General Fund whenever the fund balance
is equal to or greater than five hundred thousand dollars. Any moneys
received under section 20-324b not required to maintain the Real Estate
Guaranty Fund balance shall be deposited to the General Fund. All
moneys in the Real Estate Guaranty Fund in excess of five hundred
thousand dollars, shall be transferred by the State Treasurer to the
General Fund.
Sec. 15. Section 20 -324d of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
No application to recover compensation under sections 20-324a to 20-
324i, inclusive, as amended by this act, which might subsequently result
in an order for collection from the Real Estate Guaranty Fund shall be
brought later than two years from the final determination of, or
expiration of time for appeal in connection with, any binding arbitration
decision or any court judgment, order or decree.
Sec. 16. Subsection (e) of section 20 -324e of the 2026 supplement to
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective from passage):
(e) If the [department] Department of Consumer Protection pays
from the Real Estate Guaranty Fund any amount in settlement of a claim
or toward satisfaction of a decision, judgment, order or decree against a
real estate licensee or an unlicensed employee of a real estate licensee
pursuant to an order under subse ction (d) of this section, such person
shall not be eligible to receive a new license until such person has repaid
such amount in full [,] plus interest at the rate of ten per cent per year ,
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which interest shall accrue from the date on which the Department of
Consumer Protection makes such payment from the fund until the date
on which the Commissioner of Consumer Protection refers the unpaid
amount to the Department of Administrative Services for collection. A
discharge in bankruptcy shall not relieve a person from the penalties
and disabilities provided in this subsection.
Sec. 17. Section 20 -324f of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
Any person filing with the [commission] department any notice,
statement or other document required under the provisions of section
20-324e, as amended by this act, which is false or untrue or contains any
material misstatement of fact shall be fined not less than two hundred
dollars.
Sec. 18. Section 20 -324h of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
When the [commission] department has caused to be paid from the
Real Estate Guaranty Fund any sum to the [judgment] creditor under a
decision, judgment, order or decree, the [commission] department shall
be subrogated to all of the rights of the [judgment] creditor up to the
amount paid, and the [judgment] creditor shall assign all of [his] the
creditor's right, title and interest in the decision, judgment, order or
decree up to such amount paid to the [commission] department, and
any amount and interest recovered by the [commission] department on
the decision, judgment, order or decree shall be deposited to the fund.
Sec. 19. Subsection (o) of section 20-417i of the 2026 supplement to the
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective from passage):
(o) If the commissioner orders the payment of an amount as a result
of a guaranty fund claim against a new home construction contractor,
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the commissioner may, after notice and hearing in accordance with the
provisions of chapter 54, revoke the certificate of such contractor and
such contractor shall not be eligible to receive a new or renewed
certificate until such contractor has repaid suc h amount in full [,] plus
interest [from the time such payment is made from the New Home
Construction Guaranty Fund,] at a rate to be in accordance with section
37-3b, [except that] which interest shall accrue from the date on which
such payment is made from the New Home Construction Guaranty
Fund until the date on which the commissioner refers the unpaid
amount to the Department of Administrative Services for collection.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, the commissioner
may, in the commissioner's sole discretion, permit a new home
construction contractor to receive a new or renewed certificate after such
contractor has entered into an agreement with the commissioner
whereby such contractor agrees to repay the fund in full in the form of
periodic payments over a set period of time. Any such agreement shall
include a provision providing for the summary suspension of any and
all certificates held by the new home construction contractor if payment
is not made in accordance with the terms of the agreement.
Sec. 20. Subsections (d) to (p), inclusive, of section 20 -432 of the
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective from passage):
(d) Whenever an owner obtains a binding arbitration decision, a court
judgment, order or decree against any contractor holding a certificate or
who has held a certificate under this chapter, or against a proprietor,
within two years of the date such contractor entered into the contract
with the owner, for loss or damages sustained by reason of performance
of or offering to perform a home improvement within this state by a
contractor holding a certificate under this chapter, such owner may,
upon the final de termination of, or expiration of time for, taking an
appeal in connection with any such decision, judgment, order or decree,
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apply to the commissioner for an order directing payment out of said
guaranty fund of the amount unpaid upon the decision, judgment,
order or decree, for actual damages and costs taxed by the court against
the contractor or proprietor, exclusive of punitiv e damages. The
application shall be made on forms provided by the commissioner and
shall be accompanied by a copy of the decision, court judgment, order
or decree obtained against the contractor or proprietor together with a
statement signed and sworn to b y the owner, affirming that the owner
has made a good faith effort to satisfy such decision, judgment, order or
decree in accordance with the provisions of chapter 906. Such good faith
effort may include causing to be issued a writ of execution upon such
decision, judgment, order or decree, provided the officer executing such
writ has made a return (1) showing that no bank accounts or personal
property of the contractor or proprietor liable to be levied upon in
satisfaction of such decision, judgment, order or decree could be found,
or that the amount realized on the sale of such accounts or property or
of such accounts or property as were found, under the execution, was
insufficient to satisfy the actual damage portion of such decision,
judgment, order or d ecree, or (2) stating the amount realized and the
balance remaining due on such decision, judgment, order or decree after
such application on such decision, judgment, order or decree of the
amount realized. The requirements of this subsection shall not apply to
a judgment, order or decree obtained by the owner in small claims court.
No application for an order directing payment out of the guaranty fund
shall be made later than two years after the final determination of, or
expiration of time for, taking an appeal of [said] such decision, court
judgment, order or decree.
(e) Upon receipt of [said] such application together with [said] such
copy of the decision, court judgment, order or decree, such statement
and, except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, such true and
attested copy of the executing officer's return, the commissioner or the
commissioner's designee shall inspect such documents for their veracity
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and upon a determination that such documents are complete and
authentic, and a determination that the owner has not been paid, the
commissioner shall order payment out of the guaranty fund of the
amount unpaid upon the decision, judgment, order or decree for actual
damages and costs taxed by the court against the contractor or, if the
contractor is a business entity, a proprietor, exclusive of punitive
damages.
(f) Whenever an owner is awarded an order of restitution against any
contractor or, if the contractor is a business entity, any proprietor for
loss or damages sustained by reason of performance of or offering to
perform a home improvement in this state by a co ntractor holding a
certificate or who has held a certificate under this chapter within two
years of the date of entering into the contract with the owner, in a
proceeding brought by the commissioner pursuant to this section or
subsection (d) of section 42-110d, or in a proceeding brought by the
Attorney General pursuant to subsection (a) of section 42 -110m or
subsection (d) of section 42 -110d, or a criminal proceeding pursuant to
section 20 -427, such owner may, upon the final determination of, or
expiration of time for, taking an appeal in connection with any such
order of restitution, apply to the commissioner for an order directing
payment out of said guaranty fund of the amount unpaid upon the
order of restitution. The commissioner may issue [said] such order upon
a determination that the owner has not been paid.
(g) Whenever the commissioner orders payment to an owner out of
the guaranty fund based upon a decision, court judgment, order or
decree of restitution against any [proprietor] individual or business
entity that holds or has held a certificate under this chapter , such
[proprietor and the] individual or business entity [that holds or held a
certificate under this chapter] shall be liable for the resulting debt to the
guaranty fund.
(h) Before the commissioner may issue any order directing payment
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out of the guaranty fund to an owner pursuant to subsection (e) or (f) of
this section, the commissioner shall first notify the contractor of the
owner's application for an order directing payment out of the guaranty
fund and of the contractor's right to a hearing to contest the
disbursement in the event that the contractor or proprietor has already
paid the owner or is complying with a payment schedule in accordance
with a court judgment, order or decree. Such notice shall be given to the
contractor not later than fifteen days after receipt by the commissioner
of the owner's application for an order directing payment out of the
guaranty fund. If the contractor requests a hearing, in writing, by
certified mail not later than fifteen days after receiving the notice from
the commissioner, the commissioner shall grant such request and shall
conduct a hearing in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. If the
commissioner does not receive a request by certified mail from the
contractor for a hearing not later than fifteen days after the contractor's
receipt of such notice, the commissioner shall determine that the owner
has not been paid, and the commissioner shall issue an order directing
payment out of the guaranty fund for the amount unpaid upon the
judgment, order or decree for actual damages and costs taxed by the
court against the contractor or proprietor, exclusive of punitive
damages, or for the amount unpaid upon the order of restitution.
(i) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee may proceed
against any contractor holding a certificate or who has held a certificate
under this chapter within the past two years of the effective date of
entering into the contract with the owner, for an o rder of restitution
arising from loss or damages sustained by any person by reason of such
contractor's or the proprietor's performance of or offering to perform a
home improvement in this state. Any such proceeding shall be held in
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. In the course of such
proceeding, the commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall
decide whether to exercise the commissioner's powers pursuant to
section 20-426; whether to order restitution arising from loss or damages
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sustained by any person by reason of such contractor's or proprietor's
performance or offering to perform a home improvement in this state;
and whether to order payment out of the guaranty fund.
Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 54, the decision of the
commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall be final with respect
to any proceeding to order payment out of the guaranty fund and the
commissioner and the commissioner's designee shall not be subject to
the requirements of chapter 54 as they rel ate to appeal from any such
decision. The commissioner or the commissioner's designee may hear
complaints of all owners submitting claims against a single contractor
in one proceeding.
(j) No application for an order directing payment out of the guaranty
fund shall be made later than two years from the final determination of,
or expiration of time for, appeal in connection with any decision,
judgment, order or decree of restitution.
(k) Whenever the owner satisfies the commissioner or the
commissioner's designee that it is not practicable to comply with the
requirements of subsection (d) of this section and that the owner has
taken all reasonable steps to collect the amount of the decisio n,
judgment, order or decree or the unsatisfied part thereof and has been
unable to collect the same, the commissioner or the commissioner's
designee may, in the commissioner's or such designee's discretion,
dispense with the necessity for complying with such requirement.
(l) In order to preserve the integrity of the guaranty fund, the
commissioner, in the commissioner's sole discretion, may order
payment out of said fund of an amount less than the actual loss or
damages incurred by the owner or less than the order of restituti on
awarded by the commissioner or the Superior Court. In no event shall
any payment out of said guaranty fund be in excess of twenty -five
thousand dollars for any single claim by an owner.
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(m) If the money deposited in the guaranty fund is insufficient to
satisfy any duly authorized claim or portion thereof, the commissioner
shall, when sufficient money has been deposited in the fund, satisfy
such unpaid claims or portions thereof, in the order that such claims or
portions thereof were originally determined.
(n) Whenever the commissioner has caused any sum to be paid from
the guaranty fund to an owner, the commissioner shall be subrogated to
all of the rights of the owner up to the amount paid plus reasonable
interest, and prior to receipt of any payment from the guaranty fund,
the owner shall assign all of [this] the owner's right, title and interest in
the claim up to such amount to the commissioner, and any amount and
interest recovered by the commissioner on the claim shall be deposited
to the guaranty fund.
(o) If the commissioner orders the payment of any amount as a result
of a guaranty fund claim against a contractor or proprietor, the
commissioner shall determine if the contractor is possessed of assets
liable to be sold or applied in satisfaction of the clai m on the guaranty
fund. If the commissioner discovers any such assets, the commissioner
may request that the Attorney General take any action necessary for the
reimbursement of the guaranty fund.
(p) If the commissioner orders the payment of an amount as a result
of a guaranty fund claim against a contractor, the commissioner may,
after notice and hearing in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54,
revoke the certificate of the contractor. [and the] Any contractor, or any
individual who has an ownership interest in a business entity that holds
or has held a certificate under this chapter, shall not be eligible to receive
a new or renewed certificate until the contractor or individual has
repaid such amount in full [,] plus interest [from the time said payment
is made from the guaranty fund, ] at a rate to be in accordance with
section 37-3b, [except that] which interest shall accrue from the date on
which payment is made from the guaranty fund until the commissioner
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refers the unpaid amount to the Department of Administrative Services
for collection. Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, the
commissioner may, in the commissioner's sole discretion, permit a
contractor to receive a new or renewed certificate after that contractor
has entered into an agreement with the commissioner whereby the
contractor agrees to repay the guaranty fund in full in the form of
periodic payments over a set period of time. Any such agreement shall
include a provision providing for the summary suspension of any and
all certificates held by the contractor if payment is not made in
accordance with the terms of the agreement.
Sec. 21. Subsection (h) of section 21a -226 of the 2026 supplement to
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective from passage):
(h) If the [commissioner] Department of Consumer Protection pays
any amount as a result of a claim against a health club pursuant to an
order under subsection (g) of this section, the health club shall [pay]
repay the amount due plus interest at the rate of ten per cent per year ,
which interest shall accrue from the date on which the Department of
Consumer Protection makes such payment from the guaranty fund until
the date on which the Commissioner of Consumer Protection refers the
unpaid amount to the Department of Administrativ e Services for
collection. A health club shall not be eligible to receive a new or renewed
license until the health club has repaid such amount in full. All funds
[paid] repaid pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited in the
guaranty fund.
Sec. 22. Section 30-18a of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July
1, 2026):
(a) As used in this section:
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(1) "Out-of-state" (A) means (i) any state other than Connecticut, (ii)
any territory or possession of the United States, (iii) the District of
Columbia, or (iv) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and (B) does not
include any foreign country;
(2) "Retailer" means any business entity that (A) is primarily engaged
in selling alcoholic liquor in sealed bottles or other containers for off -
premises consumption, and (B) holds a retailer permit issued by the
alcohol beverage authority of its home state; and
(3) "Wine" includes, but is not limited to, (A) cider not exceeding six
per cent alcohol by volume, and (B) apple wine not exceeding fifteen per
cent alcohol by volume.
[(a)] (b) (1) An out -of-state winery shipper's permit for wine shall
allow the sale of wine to manufacturer and wholesaler permittees in this
state as permitted by law and for those shippers that produce not more
than one hundred thousand gallons of wine per year, the sale and
shipment by the holder thereof to a retailer of wine manufactured by
such permittee in the original sealed containers of not more than fifteen
gallons per container. [For purposes of this section, "wine" shall include
cider not exceeding six per cent alcohol by volume and apple wine not
exceeding fifteen per cent alcohol by volume.]
(2) An out-of-state retailer shipper's permit for wine shall allow the
sale and shipment of wine directly to a consumer in this state.
[(b)] (c) Subject to the provisions of this subsection, the permits under
subsection [(a)] (b) of this section shall allow the sale and delivery or
shipment of wine manufactured or sold by the permittee directly to a
consumer in this state. Such permittee, when selling and shipping wine
directly to a consumer in this state, shall: (1) Ensure that t he shipping
labels on all containers of wine shipped directly to a consumer in this
state conspicuously state the following: "CONTAINS ALCOHOL —
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SIGNATURE OF A PERSON AGE 21 OR OLDER REQUIRED FOR
DELIVERY"; (2) obtain the signature of a person age twenty-one or older
at the address prior to delivery, after requiring the signer to demonstrate
that he or she is age twenty -one or older by providing a valid motor
vehicle operator's license or a valid identity card described in section 1-
1h; (3) not ship more than five gallons of wine in any two-month period
to any person in this state and not ship any wine until such permittee is
registered, with respect to the permittee's sales of wine to consumers in
this state, for purposes of the taxes imposed under chapters 219 and 220,
with the Department of Revenue Services; (4) pay, to the Department of
Revenue Services, all sales taxes and alcoholic beverage taxes due under
chapters 219 and 220 on sales of wine to consumers in this state, and file,
with said department, all sales tax returns and alcoholic beverage tax
returns relating to such sales, with the amount of such taxes to be
calculated as if the sale were in this state at the location where delivery
is made; (5) report to the Department of Consumer Protection a separate
and complete record of all sales and shipments to consumers in the state,
on a ledger sheet or similar form which readily presents a chronological
account of such permittee's dealings with each such consumer; (6)
permit the Department of Consumer Protection and Department of
Revenue Services, separately or jointly, to perform an audit of the
permittee's records upon request; (7) not ship to any address in the state
where the sale of alcoholic liquor is prohibited by local option pursuant
to section 30-9; (8) hold an in-state transporter permit under section 30-
19f or make any such shipment through the use of a person who holds
such an in-state transporter permit; (9) execute a written consent to the
jurisdiction of this state, its agencies and instrumentalities and the
courts of this state concerning the enforcement of this section and any
related laws, rules, or regulations, including tax l aws, rules or
regulations; and (10) comply with the provisions of section 30 -68m
regarding the prohibition of selling wine below cost.
[(c)] (d) The Department of Consumer Protection, in consultation
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with the Department of Revenue Services, may adopt regulations in
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 to assure compliance with
the provisions of subsection [(b)] (c) of this section.
[(d)] (e) A holder of a permit under subsection [(a)] (b) of this section,
when advertising or offering wine for direct shipment to a consumer in
this state via the Internet or any other on -line computer network, shall
clearly and conspicuously state such liquor permit number in its
advertising.
[(e)] (f) (1) For purposes of chapter 219, the holder of a permit under
subsection [(a)] (b) of this section, when shipping wine directly to a
consumer in this state, shall be deemed to be a retailer engaged in
business in this state as defined in chapter 219 and shall be required to
be issued a seller's permit pursuant to chapter 219.
(2) For purposes of chapter 220, the holder of a permit under
subsection [(a)] (b) of this section, when shipping wine directly to a
consumer in this state, shall be deemed to be a distributor as defined in
chapter 220 and shall be required to be licensed pursuant to chapter 220.
[(f)] (g) Any person who applies for an out -of-state winery shipper's
permit for wine or for the renewal of such permit shall furnish an
affidavit to the Department of Consumer Protection, in such form as
may be prescribed by the department, affirming whether the ou t-of-
state winery that is the subject of such permit produced more than one
hundred thousand gallons of wine during the most recently completed
calendar year.
[(g)] (h) The annual fee for an out-of-state winery shipper's permit for
wine shall be three hundred fifteen dollars and the annual fee for an out-
of-state retailer shipper's permit for wine shall be six hundred dollars.
[(h) As used in this section, "out-of-state" means any state other than
Connecticut, any territory or possession of the United States, the District
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of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, but does not include
any foreign country.]
Sec. 23. Subsection (b) of section 30 -37f of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1,
2026):
(b) Sections 30-9 to 30-13a, inclusive, section 30-22aa, subdivision [(2)]
(3) of subsection (b) of section 30-39, as amended by this act, subsection
(c) of section 30-39 and sections 30-44, 30-46, 30-48a and 30-91a shall not
apply to a cafe permit issued pursuant to subsection (d) of section 30 -
22a.
Sec. 24. Subsection (b) of section 30 -39 of the 2026 supplement to the
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective July 1, 2026):
(b) (1) Any person desiring a liquor permit or a renewal of such a
permit shall make an affirmed application therefor to the Department of
Consumer Protection, upon forms to be furnished by the department,
showing the name and address of the applicant and of the a pplicant's
backer, if any, the location of the club or place of business which is to be
operated under such permit and a financial statement setting forth all
elements and details of any business transactions connected with the
application. [Such] If such application is for a liquor permit that allows
on-premises serving or consumption of alcoholic liquor, such
application shall also include a detailed description of the type of live
entertainment that is to be provided. A club or place of business shall be
exempt from providing such detailed description if the club or place of
business (A) was issued a liquor permit prior to October 1, 1993, and (B)
has not altered the type of entertainment provided. The application shall
also indicate any crimes of which the applicant or the applicant's backer
may have been convicted. The department shall not review an initial
application until the applicant has submitted all documents necessary
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to establish that state and local building, fire and zoning requirements
and local ordinances concerning hours and days of sale will be met,
except that local building and zoning requirements and local ordinances
concerning hours and days of sale shall not apply to a cafe permit issued
under subsection (d) or (h) of section 30 -22a. If the applicant does not
submit all such documents within the thirty -day period beginning on
the date on which the department receives the initial application, or if
such documents are not fully executed by the appropriate authorities,
such initial application shall be deemed withdrawn and invalid. The
State Fire Marshal or the marshal's certified designee shall be
responsible for approving compliance with the State Fire Code at
Bradley International Airport. Any person desiring a permit provided
for in section 30-33b shall file a copy of such person's license with such
application if such license was issued by the Department of Consumer
Protection. The department may, at its disc retion, conduct an
investigation to determine (i) whether a permit shall be issued to an
applicant or the applicant's backer, or (ii) the suitability of the proposed
permit premises. Completion of an inspection pursuant to subsection (f)
of section 29 -305 shall not be deemed to constitute a precondition to
renewal of a permit that is subject to subsection (f) of section 29-305.
(2) The applicant shall pay to the department a nonrefundable
application fee, which fee shall be in addition to the fees prescribed in
this chapter for the permit sought. An application fee shall not be
charged for an application to renew a permit. The applic ation fee shall
be in the amount of ten dollars for the filing of each application for a
permit by a nonprofit golf tournament permit under section 30-37g or a
temporary liquor permit for a noncommercial entity under section 30 -
35; and in the amount of one hundred dollars for the filing of an initial
application for all other permits. Any permit issued shall be valid only
for the purposes and activities described in the application.
(3) (A) The applicant shall affix, and maintain in a legible condition
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upon the outer door of the building wherein such place of business is to
be located and clearly visible from the public highway, the placard
provided by the department, not later than the day following the receipt
of the placard by the applicant. If such outer door of such premises is so
far from the public highway that such placa rd is not clearly visible as
provided, the department shall direct a suitable method to notify the
public of such application. When an application is filed for any type of
permit for a building that has not been constructed, such applicant shall
erect and maintain in a legible condition a sign not less than six feet by
four feet upon the site where such place of business is to be located,
instead of such placard upon the outer door of the building. The sign
shall set forth the type of permit applied for and the name of the
proposed permittee, shall be clearly visible from the public highway and
shall be so erected not later than the day following the receipt of the
placard. Such applicant shall make a return to the department, under
oath, of compliance with the foregoing requirements, in such form as
the department may determine, but the department may require any
additional proof of such compliance. Upon receipt of evidence of such
compliance, the department may hold a hearing as to the suitability of
the proposed location.
(B) The provisions of subparagraph (A) of this subdivision regarding
placarding shall not apply to applications for [(A)] (i) airline permits
issued under section 30 -28a, [(B)] (ii) temporary liquor permits for
noncommercial entities issued under section 30-35, [(C)] (iii) concession
permits issued under section 30 -33, [(D)] (iv) military permits issued
under section 30-34, [(E)] (v) cafe permits issued under subsection (h) of
section 30-22a, [(F)] (vi) warehouse permits issued under section 30 -32,
[(G)] (vii) broker's permits issued under section 30-30, [(H)] (viii) out-of-
state shipper's permits for alcoholic liquor issued under section 30 -18,
[(I)] (ix) out-of-state shipper's permits for beer issued under section 30 -
19, [(J)] (x) coliseum permits issued under section 30 -33a, [(K)] (xi)
nonprofit golf tournament permits issued under section 30 -37g, [(L)]
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(xii) Connecticut craft cafe permits issued under section 30 -22d to
permittees who held a manufacturer permit for a brew pub or a
manufacturer permit for beer issued under subsection (b) of section 30-
16 and a brew pub before July 1, 2020, [(M)] (xiii) off-site farm winery
sales and wine, cider and mead tasting permits issued under section 30-
16a, [(N)] (xiv) out-of-state retailer shipper's permits for wine issued
under section 30 -18a, as amended by this act , [(O)] (xv) out-of-state
winery shipper's permits for wine issued under section 30 -18a, as
amended by this act, [(P)] (xvi) in-state transporter permits for alcoholic
liquor issued under section 30 -19f, including, but not limited to, boats
operating under such permits, [(Q)] (xvii) seasonal outdoor open -air
permits issued under section 30-22e, [(R)] (xviii) festival permits issued
under section 30-37t, [(S)] (xix) temporary auction permits issued under
section 30-37u, [(T)] (xx) outdoor open-air permits issued under section
30-22f, and [(U)] (xxi) renewals of any permit described in
subparagraphs [(A)] (B)(i) to [(T)] (B)(xx), inclusive, of this subdivision,
if applicable. [The]
(C) Notwithstanding the provisions of subparagraph (B) of this
subdivision, the provisions of subparagraph (A) of this subdivision
regarding [placard display] placarding shall [also be required of] apply
to any applicant who seeks to amend the type of live entertainment to
be provided, either upon filing of a renewal application or upon
requesting permission of the department in a form that requires the
approval of the municipal zoning official.
(4) In any case in which a permit has been issued to a partnership, if
one or more of the partners dies or retires, the remaining partner or
partners need not file a new application for the unexpired portion of the
current permit, and no additional fee for suc h unexpired portion shall
be required. Notice of any such change shall be given to the department
and the permit shall be endorsed to show correct ownership. When any
partnership changes by reason of the addition of one or more persons, a
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new application with new fees shall be required.
Sec. 25. Section 30 -86a of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2026):
(a) For the purposes of section 30-86, any permittee shall require any
person whose age is in question to fill out and sign a statement in the
following form on one occasion when each such person makes a
purchase:
...., 20..
I, ...., hereby represent to ...., a permittee of the Connecticut
Department of Consumer Protection, that I am over the age of 21 years,
having been born on ...., 19.. or 20.., at ..... (city), ….. (state). This
statement is made to induce said permittee to sell or otherwise furnish
alcoholic beverages to the undersigned. I understand that title 30 of the
general statutes prohibits the sale of alcoholic liquor to any person who
is not twenty-one years of age.
I understand that I am subject to a fine of one hundred dollars for the
first offense and not more than two hundred fifty dollars for each
subsequent offense for wilfully misrepresenting my age for the
purposes set forth in this statement.
.... (Name)
.... (Address)
Such statement once taken shall be applicable both to the particular
sale in connection with which such statement was taken, as well as to all
future sales at the same premises, and shall have full force and effect
under subsection (b) of this section as t o every subsequent sale or
purchase. Such statement shall be printed upon appropriate forms to be
furnished by the permittee and approved by the Department of
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Consumer Protection or electronically displayed by the permittee on an
electronic device that is capable of allowing the person whose age is in
question to electronically fill out and sign such statement. If such
statement is filled out and signed in paper form, such statement shall be
kept on file on the permit premises, alphabetically indexed, in a suitable
file box, and shall be open to inspection by the department or any of the
department's agents or inspectors at any reasonable time. If such
statement is filled out and signed in electronic form, such statement
shall be stored in an electronic medium that is immediately accessible
from the permit premises, alphabetically indexed, and shall be in an
electronic format that is accessible to the department o r any of the
department's agents or inspectors at any reasonable time. Any person
who makes any false statement on a form signed by such person as
required by this section shall be fined not more than one hundred
dollars for the first offense and not more than two hundred fifty dollars
for each subsequent offense.
(b) In any case where such a statement has been procured and the
permittee is subsequently charged with serving or furnishing alcoholic
beverages to a minor, if such permittee, in proceedings before any court
of this state or the Department of Consumer Protection, introduces such
statement in evidence and shows both that the evidence presented to
[him] such permittee to establish the age of the purchaser was such as
would convince a reasonable [man] person and that such permittee or
the backer otherwise acted reasonably in serving or furnishing alcoholic
beverages to the minor, no penalty shall be imposed on such permittee.
Sec. 26. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2026) (a) As used in this section:
(1) "Baby food product" (A) means any food that is (i) manufactured,
packaged, labeled and sold in a container, and (ii) intended for
consumption by individuals younger than two years of age, and (B)
does not include water or infant formula, as defined in section 21a-92 of
the general statutes;
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(2) "Consumer" means an individual residing in this state who is a
purchaser, or a prospective purchaser, of a baby food product;
(3) "Food" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-92 of the
general statutes;
(4) "Person" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a -92 of
the general statutes;
(5) "Production aggregate" means a quantity of a baby food product
that is (A) intended to be uniform in composition, character and quality,
and (B) produced according to a master manufacturing order;
(6) "Proficient laboratory" means a laboratory that (A) is accredited
under International Organization for Standardization or International
Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) Standard 17025:2017, as
amended from time to time, (B) uses an analytical meth od that is as
sensitive as the analytical method described in the latest edition of the
federal Food and Drug Administration's "Elemental Analysis Manual
for Food and Related Products", and (C) demonstrates proficiency in
quantifying each toxic heavy metal concentration to at least six
micrograms of the toxic heavy metal to kilogram of food through an
independent proficiency test by achieving a z -score that is less than or
equal to plus or minus two;
(7) "Quick response code" means a two -dimensional matrix barcode
that consists of blocks arranged in a grid and may be read by an imaging
device;
(8) "Representative sample" means a sample that (A) consists of
several units drawn from a material based on rational criteria, including,
but not limited to, random sampling, and (B) is intended to accurately
represent the material from which the sample is drawn; and
(9) "Toxic heavy metal" includes arsenic, cadmium, lead and mercury.
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(b) On and after January 1, 2028, no person shall manufacture, sell,
distribute or offer for sale in this state any baby food product that
contains a toxic heavy metal in an amount that exceeds the applicable
limit established by the federal Food and Drug Administration.
(c) On and after January 1, 2028, the manufacturer of a baby food
product manufactured in this state, or intended for sale or distribution
in this state, shall, not less frequently than monthly, ensure that a
proficient laboratory tests a representative sa mple of each production
aggregate of the final baby food product for the presence of toxic heavy
metals. Each test may be performed before the final baby food product
is packaged for distribution or sale. The manufacturer shall maintain a
record of the results of each such test for not less than thirty-six months
beginning on the date on which such test was performed.
(d) On and after January 1, 2028, the manufacturer of a baby food
product manufactured in this state, or intended for sale or distribution
in this state, shall make publicly available on the manufacturer's Internet
web site, until thirty days after expirat ion of the shelf life of the final
baby food product:
(1) The name and amount of each toxic heavy metal present in the
final baby food product, as determined by way of the testing required
under subsection (c) of this section;
(2) Information, including, but not limited to, the name of the final
baby food product or the universal product code, lot number or batch
number assigned to the final baby food product, that is sufficient to
enable a reasonable consumer to identify the fi nal baby food product;
and
(3) A link to a publicly accessible web page on the federal Food and
Drug Administration's Internet web site where a consumer may review
current information, and said administration's current guidance,
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regarding the effects of toxic heavy metals on children's health.
(e) On and after January 1, 2028, if a baby food product is tested for a
toxic heavy metal subject to an action level, regulatory limit or tolerance
established by the federal Food and Drug Administration under 21 CFR
109, as amended from time to time, or another standard of identity for
food established in regulations promulgated under Title 21 of the
United States Code, the manufacturer of the baby food product shall
display on the baby food product container:
(1) The following statement in a clear, legible and conspicuous
manner:
"For Information About Toxic Element Testing On This Product, Scan
the QR Code."; and
(2) A quick response code, or another machine -readable code, that
directs consumers to a publicly accessible web page on the
manufacturer's Internet web site, or to the baby food p roduct
information page, disclosing:
(A) The results of the testing described in this subsection; and
(B) The address of a publicly accessible web page on the federal Food
and Drug Administration's Internet web site where a consumer may
review current information, and said administration's current guidance,
regarding the effects of toxic heavy metals on children's health.
Sec. 27. Subsections (a) to (c), inclusive, of section 42 -221 of the 2026
supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) A dealer selling a used motor vehicle [which has a cash purchase
price of three thousand dollars or more] that is less than ten years of age
shall not exclude, modify, disclaim or limit implied warranties on the
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motor vehicle.
(b) Each contract entered into by a dealer for the sale to a consumer
of a used motor vehicle [which has a cash purchase price of three
thousand dollars or more but less than five thousand dollars,] that is less
than ten years of age shall include an express warranty, covering the full
cost of both parts and labor, that the vehicle is mechanically operational
and sound and will remain so for at least [thirty] sixty days or [one
thousand five hundred ] three thousand miles of operation, whichever
period ends first, in the absence of damage resulting from an automobile
accident or from misuse of the vehicle by the consumer. [Each contract
entered into by a dealer for the sale of a used motor vehicle which has a
cash purchase price of five thousand dollars or more shall include an
express warranty, covering the full cost of both parts and labor, that the
vehicle is mechanically operational and sound and will remain so for at
least sixty days or three thousand miles of operation, whichever period
ends first, in th e absence of damage resulting from an automobile
accident or from misuse of the vehicle by the consumer. ] A dealer may
not limit a warranty covered by this section by the use of such phrases
as "fifty-fifty", "labor only", "drive train only", or other words attempting
to disclaim [his] the dealer's responsibility.
(c) The provisions of this section shall not apply to: (1) The [sale of a
used motor vehicle having a cash purchase price of less than three
thousand dollars; (2) the ] sale of [such] used motor vehicles between
dealers; or [(3)] (2) the sale of a used motor vehicle [which] that is [seven]
ten years of age or older, which age shall be calculated from the first day
in January of the designated model year of such vehicle.
Sec. 28. Subsection (a) of section 42 -224 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
(a) A used motor vehicle may be sold "as is" by a dealer only [if its
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cash purchase price is less than three thousand dollars or ] if such used
motor vehicle is [seven] ten years of age or older, which age shall be
calculated from the first day in January of the designated model year of
such vehicle.
Sec. 29. (Effective from passage) (a) As used in this section:
(1) "Dietary supplement for weight loss or muscle building" means a
class of dietary supplement that is labeled, marketed or otherwise
represented for the purpose of achieving weight loss or muscle building,
but shall not include (A) protein powders, (B) p rotein drinks, and (C)
foods marketed as containing protein unless the protein powder,
protein drink or food marketed as containing protein contains an
ingredient other than protein which would, considered alone, constitute
a dietary supplement for weight loss or muscle building; and
(2) "Over -the-counter diet pill" means a class of drugs labeled,
marketed or otherwise represented for the purpose of achieving weight
loss that are lawfully sold, transferred or furnished over the counter
with or without a prescription pursuant to the fed eral Food, Drug and
Cosmetic Act, 21 USC 301 et seq., as amended from time to time, or
regulations adopted thereunder.
(b) There is established a task force to study the sale in the state of
dietary supplements for weight loss or muscle building and over -the-
counter diet pills. The task force shall consist of the following members:
(1) Two appointed by the speaker of the House of Representatives,
one of whom has expertise in the safety of dietary supplements for
weight loss or muscle building and one of whom has expertise in the
safety of over-the-counter diet pills;
(2) Two appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate;
(3) One appointed by the majority leader of the House of
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Representatives;
(4) One appointed by the majority leader of the Senate;
(5) One appointed by the minority leader of the House of
Representatives;
(6) One appointed by the minority leader of the Senate;
(7) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection, or the commissioner's
designee;
(8) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's
designee; and
(9) The executive director of the Commission on Women, Children,
Seniors, Equity and Opportunity, who shall serve as chairperson of the
task force.
(c) Any member of the task force appointed under subdivision (1),
(2), (3), (4), (5) or (6) of subsection (b) of this section may be a member
of the General Assembly.
(d) All initial appointments to the task force shall be made not later
than thirty days after the effective date of this section. Any vacancy shall
be filled by the appointing authority.
(e) The chairperson of the task force shall schedule the first meeting
of the task force, which shall be held not later than sixty days after the
effective date of this section.
(f) The administrative staff of the joint standing committee of the
General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to consumer
protection shall serve as administrative staff of the task force.
(g) Not later than January 1, 2027, the task force shall submit a report
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on its findings and recommendations to the joint standing committee of
the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to
consumer protection, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a
of the general statutes. The report shall include, but need not be limited
to, research related to the safety of dietary supplements for weight loss
or muscle building and over -the-counter diet pills by age of users,
whether the sale to minors of such supplements or pills should be
restricted and best prac tices in other states for regulation of such
supplements or pills.
Sec. 30. (NEW) ( Effective January 1, 2027 ) (a) As used in this section,
unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Artistic performance" (A) includes, but is not limited to, a concert,
operatic or theatrical performance, and (B) does not include a movie;
(2) "Entertainment event" (A) includes, but is not limited to, (i) an
artistic performance, athletic competition or sporting event, or (ii)
admission to a place of amusement, and (B) does not include a movie;
(3) "Entertainment venue" (A) includes, but is not limited to, an arena,
exhibition hall, performance hall, place of amusement in this state,
stadium or theater, and (B) does not include a movie theater;
(4) "Entertainment venue operator" (A) means a person who owns,
operates or controls an entertainment venue, and (B) includes, but is not
limited to, any authorized agent or employee of such person while
acting in the course of such agent's or employee's a uthority or
employment;
(5) "Initial sale" means, with respect to a ticket, the transaction in
which a ticket seller first sells the ticket to a purchaser or ticket reseller;
(6) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, limited
liability company, partnership, trust or other legal entity;
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(7) "Purchaser" means an individual who purchases a ticket;
(8) "Resale" means, with respect to a ticket, any transaction
subsequent to the initial sale of the ticket in which a ticket reseller resells
the ticket to a purchaser;
(9) "Ticket" means evidence of a purchaser's right to enter an
entertainment event or entertainment venue;
(10) "Ticket reseller" (A) means, with respect to a ticket, the person
who makes the ticket available for resale, (B) includes, but is not limited
to, any authorized agent or employee of such person who, acting in the
course of such agent's or employee's a uthority or employment, makes
the ticket available for resale, and (C) does not include the entertainment
venue operator or ticket seller; and
(11) "Ticket seller" (A) means, with respect to a ticket, the person,
including, but not limited to, the entertainment venue operator, who
makes the ticket available for initial sale, and (B) includes, but is not
limited to, any authorized agent or employee of such person who, acting
in the course of such agent's or employee's authority or employment,
makes the ticket available for initial sale.
(b) (1) No ticket reseller doing business in the state shall offer or
engage in any resale of a ticket in the state, unless the ticket reseller:
(A) Is in actual or constructive possession of the ticket; or
(B) Has entered into a written contract with the entertainment venue
operator that explicitly authorizes the ticket reseller to obtain the ticket
from the entertainment venue operator.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this
subsection:
(A) A person who is the initial purchaser of tickets to a season or
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series of professional or intercollegiate athletic competitions or sporting
events may resell a ticket to an individual athletic competition or
sporting event comprising part of such season or series, provided such
person (i) is not regularly engaged in the business of selling or reselling
tickets to entertainment events, (ii) is in actual or constructive
possession of such ticket, and (iii) discloses to the purchaser, before the
purchaser purchases such ticket from such person, (I) the identity and
scheduled date of such individual athletic competition or sporting
event, and (II) the seating or standing location in the entertainment
venue the holder of such ticket is entitled to occupy during such
individual athletic competition or sporting event; and
(B) A person, including, but not limited to, an entertainment venue
operator, may offer and sell to a purchaser, on a subscription basis, (i)
tickets to a season or series of artistic performances that are not
individually priced at the time of initial sale, or (ii) the right to purchase
tickets to a specified number of artistic performances during a specified
season or series of artistic performances, provided no such ticket shall
be resold until such ticket has been issued to the initial purchaser or
assigned for a specific artistic performance, date and seating or standing
location.
(c) A violation of any provision of subsection (b) of this section shall
constitute an unfair or deceptive act or practice in the conduct of trade
or commerce pursuant to subsection (a) of section 42-110b of the general
statutes.
Sec. 31. (NEW) ( Effective January 1, 2027 ) (a) As used in this section,
"entertainment event", "entertainment venue", "entertainment venue
operator", "initial sale", "resale" and "ticket" have the same meanings as
provided in section 30 of this act.
(b) No person doing business in the state shall advertise or facilitate
the initial sale or resale of any ticket by way of an Internet web site if the
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Internet domain of such Internet web site, or any Internet subdomain of
such Internet web site, includes:
(1) The name of the entertainment venue for the entertainment event,
or any name that is substantially similar to the name of such
entertainment venue, unless such person (A) is the entertainment venue
operator, or (B) has obtained express written consent from the
entertainment venue operator to include such name in such Internet
domain or Internet subdomain;
(2) The name of the entertainment event, or any name that is
substantially similar to the name of such entertainment event, unless
such person (A) is the person responsible for organizing financing or
publicity for such entertainment event or is an authori zed agent or
employee of such person acting in the course of such agent's or
employee's authority or employment, or (B) has obtained express
written consent from such person, agent or employee to include such
name in such Internet domain or Internet subdomain; or
(3) The name of an individual or group scheduled to perform or
appear at the entertainment event, or any name that is substantially
similar to the name of such individual or group, unless such person (A)
is such individual or group or is an authorized agen t or employee of
such individual or group acting in the course of such agent's or
employee's authority or employment, or (B) has obtained express
written consent from such individual, group, agent or employee to
include such name in such Internet domain or Internet subdomain.
(c) A violation of any provision of subsection (b) of this section shall
constitute an unfair or deceptive act or practice in the conduct of trade
or commerce pursuant to subsection (a) of section 42-110b of the general
statutes.
Sec. 32. Section 53 -289a of the general statutes is repealed and the
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following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective January 1, 2027):
(a) As used in this section: [, "service charge"]
(1) "Dynamic pricing model" means an algorithmic model that
adjusts prices in real time;
(2) "Entertainment event" has the same meaning as provided in
section 30 of this act;
(3) "Entertainment venue" has the same meaning as provided in
section 30 of this act;
(4) "Person" has the same meaning as provided in section 30 of this
act; and
(5) "Service charge" means any additional fee or charge that is
designated as an "administrative fee", "service fee" or "surcharge" or by
using another substantially similar term.
(b) No person shall advertise the prices of tickets to any
entertainment event for which a service charge is imposed , including,
but not limited to, any [place of amusement, arena, stadium, theater,
performance, sport, exhibition or athletic contest given ] entertainment
venue in this state [for] at which a service charge is imposed for the sale
of a ticket at [the site of the event ] such entertainment venue , without
conspicuously disclosing in such advertisement, whether displayed at
[the site of the event ] such entertainment venue or elsewhere, the total
price [for] of each ticket and [what] which portion of each ticket price,
stated in a dollar amount, represents a service charge.
(c) If a price is charged for admission to [a place of] an entertainment
venue, the operator of the [place of ] entertainment venue shall print,
endorse or otherwise disclose on the face of each ticket to an
entertainment event at such [place of] entertainment venue (1) the price
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established for such ticket, or (2) if such operator, or such operator's
agent, sells or resells such ticket, including at auction, the final price of
such ticket.
(d) (1) Any person [that] who advertises or facilitates the sale or resale
of a ticket to an entertainment event shall (A) disclose the total price of
such ticket, [which total price shall include] including all service charges
required to purchase such ticket, and (B) disclose, in a clear and
conspicuous manner, to the purchaser of such ticket the portion of the
total [ticket] price of such ticket , expressed as a dollar amount, that is
attributable to service charges charged to such purchaser for such ticket.
(2) Any person who advertises or facilitates the resale of a ticket to an
entertainment event via an Internet web site or online technology
platform, the primary purpose of which is to facilitate resales of such
tickets, shall disclose, in a clear and conspicuous manner, that the ticket
is a resale ticket that may be offered at a price that differs from the price
of a ticket to an entertainment event that is offered or sold by the
presenter of the entertainment event.
[(2)] (3) (A) The disclosures required under [subdivision (1) ]
subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection shall be displayed [in the
ticket listing before the ticket is selected for purchase. The total ticket
price] when the ticket is initially offered for sale or resale to a purchaser,
and the displayed price shall not increase during the transaction period
beginning when [a] the ticket is [selected for purchase] initially offered
for sale or resale to a purchaser and ending when [a] the ticket is
purchased, except a reasonable service charge may be charged for
delivery of a nonelectronic ticket if [(A)] (i) such service charge is based
on the delivery method selected by the ticket purchaser, and [(B)] (ii)
such service charge is disclosed to such purchaser before such purchaser
purchases such ticket.
(B) Nothing in subparagraph (A) of this subdivision shall be
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construed to prohibit (i) any change in the price of a ticket after a
purchaser's transaction period has timed out if the purchaser has not yet
purchased the ticket, or (ii) the use of a dynamic pricing model,
provided the ticket price does not increase during the transaction period
beginning when the ticket is initially offered to the purchaser and
ending when the purchaser completes the ticket purchasing process or
the purchaser's transaction period has timed out, whichever occurs first.
[(3)] (4) No disclosure required under this subsection shall be (A)
false or misleading, (B) presented more prominently than the total
[ticket] price of such ticket, or (C) displayed in a font size that is as large
or larger than the font size in which the total [ticket] price of such ticket
is displayed.
[(e) A movie shall not be deemed to constitute an entertainment event
for the purposes of this section.]
(e) (1) Each person who sells or resells a ticket to a live entertainment
event shall (A) if the live entertainment event is cancelled, provide a
refund to the purchaser (i) in an amount equal to the total price of such
ticket, including all service charges the purchaser paid for such ticket,
minus any reasonable service charge the purchaser paid for delivery of
a nonelectronic ticket, and (ii) not later than thirty days following
cancellation of such live entertainment event, and (B) disclose, in a clear
and conspicuous manner, to each purchaser of a ticket to the live
entertainment event that such purchaser is entitled to a refund in the
amount and within the thirty-day period set forth in subparagraph (A)
of this subdivision if such live entertainment event is cancelled.
(2) The disclosure required under subparagraph (B) of subdivision (1)
of this subsection shall be displayed to each purchaser of a ticket to a
live entertainment event before such purchaser purchases such ticket.
Such disclosure shall be displayed in a form an d manner prescribed by
the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.
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(f) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may adopt
regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to
implement the provisions of this section.
(g) A violation of any provision of subsections (b) to (e), inclusive, of
this section shall constitute an unfair or deceptive act or practice in the
conduct of trade or commerce pursuant to subsection (a) of section 42 -
110b.
Sec. 33. Section 21a-415 of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective
January 1, 2027):
(a) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Authorized owner" means the owner or authorized designee of a
business entity that is applying for a registration or is registered with
the Department of Consumer Protection pursuant to this chapter;
(2) "Business entity" means any corporation, limited liability
company, association, partnership, sole proprietorship, government,
governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust or any
other legal entity;
(3) "Cannabis" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a -240,
as amended by this act;
[(3)] (4) "Cigarette" has the same meaning as provided in subsection
(b) of section 12-285;
[(4)] (5) "Dealer registration" means an electronic nicotine delivery
system certificate of dealer registration issued by the Commissioner of
Consumer Protection pursuant to this section;
[(5)] (6) "Deliver" or "delivering" means transferring, or offering or
attempting to transfer, physical possession or control of an electronic
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nicotine delivery system or vapor product by any person, whether done
as principal, proprietor, agent, servant or employee;
[(6)] (7) "Drug paraphernalia" has the same meaning as provided in
section 21a-240, as amended by this act;
[(7)] (8) "Electronic cigarette liquid" means a liquid that, when used
in an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product, produces a
vapor that may or may not include nicotine and is inhaled by the user
of such electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product;
[(8)] (9) "Electronic nicotine delivery system" means an electronic
device used in the delivery of nicotine or other substances to an
individual inhaling from the device, and includes, but is not limited to,
an electronic cigarette, electronic cigar, electronic cigarillo, electronic
pipe or electronic hookah and any related device and any cartridge or
other component of such device, including, but not limited to, electronic
cigarette liquid;
[(9)] (10) "Manufacturer registration" means an electronic nicotine
delivery system certificate of manufacturer registration issued by the
Commissioner of Consumer Protection pursuant to section 21a -415a to
any person who mixes, compounds, repackages or resizes any nicotine-
containing electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product;
[(10)] (11) "Sale" or "sell" means transferring, or offering or attempting
to transfer, for consideration, including bartering or exchanging, or
offering to barter or exchange by any person, whether done as principal,
proprietor, agent, servant or employee;
[(11)] (12) "Tobacco products" has the same meaning as provided in
section 12-330a; and
[(12)] (13) "Vapor product" means any product that employs a heating
element, power source, electronic circuit or other electronic, chemical or
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mechanical means, regardless of shape or size, to produce a vapor that
may include nicotine and is inhaled by the user of such product. "Vapor
product" does not include a medicinal or therapeutic product that is (A)
used by a licensed health care provider to treat a patient in a health care
setting, (B) used by a patient, as prescribed or directed by a licensed
health care provider in any setting, or (C) any drug or device, as defined
in the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, 21 USC 321, as amended
from time to time, any combination product, as described in said act, 21
USC 353(g), as amended from time to time, or any biological product, as
described in 42 USC 262, as amended from time to time, and 21 CFR
600.3, as amended from time to time, authorized for sale by the United
States Food and Drug Administration.
(b) (1) No person in this state may sell or possess with intent to sell
an electronic nicotine delivery system or a vapor product unless such
person is employed by, an agent of or directly affiliated with a business
entity that maintains a dealer registration issu ed by the Commissioner
of Consumer Protection pursuant to this section. A separate dealer
registration shall be required for each place of business where such
system or product is sold, offered for sale or possessed with the intent
to sell. A deale r registration shall allow the sale of electronic nicotine
delivery systems or vapor products at such place of business. A holder
of a dealer registration shall post such registration in a prominent
location adjacent to electronic nicotine delivery system products or
vapor products offered for sale.
(2) The holder of a dealer registration shall maintain a sign, in a form
and manner prescribed by the commissioner and posted on the
Department of Consumer Protection's Internet web site, on all external
entry doors of the location operated under such dealer r egistration,
which shall clearly disclose that cannabis may not be sold at such
location.
(3) Each holder of a dealer registration that derives at least fifty per
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cent of its annual gross revenue from sales of cigarettes, drug
paraphernalia, electronic nicotine delivery systems, nicotine products,
synthetic nicotine, tobacco products and vapor products shall verify,
with a valid government-issued driver's license or identity card, the age
of each individual entering the location operated under such dealer
registration, and shall prohibit any individual younger than twenty-one
years of age from entering such location.
(4) (A) Each holder of a dealer registration shall maintain a complete
set of records required pursuant to this section, [and] including, but not
limited to, (i) all financial records necessary to verify whether such
holder derives at least fifty per cent of its annual gross revenue from
sales of cigarettes, drug paraphernalia, electronic nicotine delivery
systems, nicotine products, synthetic nicotine, tobacco pr oducts and
vapor products, for the then current tax year and the three immediately
preceding tax years, and (ii) for a dealer registration initially issued on
or after January 1, 2027, all records necessary to verify that not more
than twenty-five per cent of the total floor area dedicated to sales at the
location that is operated under such dealer registr ation is dedicated to
sales of cigarettes, drug paraphernalia, electronic nicotine delivery
systems, nicotine products, synthetic nicotine, tobacco products and
vapor products, including, but not limited to, floor plans depicting the
total floor are a dedicated to sales and the portions of such total floor
area dedicated to sales of cigarettes, drug paraphernalia, electronic
nicotine delivery systems, nicotine products, synthetic nicotine, tobacco
products and vapor products. [Such]
(B) Each holder of a dealer registration shall make [such] the records
maintained pursuant to subparagraph (A) of this subdivision
immediately available to the department, upon a request made by the
department, for inspection and copying by the department. Such holder
shall produce such records to the department not later than three days
after the department requests such records. Su ch holder shall produce
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such records to the department in an electronic format, unless it is
commercially impractical to produce such records to the department in
an electronic format. No person shall use any foreign language, code or
symbol in maintaining the records required under this section.
(c) (1) Any applicant for a dealer registration or a renewal of a dealer
registration shall apply to the Department of Consumer Protection, in a
form and manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection, which application shall include, at a minimum:
(A) The name, address and electronic mail address of the applicant;
(B) The location that is to be operated , or is operated, under such
dealer registration;
(C) The name of, and contact information for, each individual who
has a direct or indirect financial interest in such applicant, unless (i) such
applicant is a publicly traded company listed on a national stock
exchange, or (ii) the financial interest held by such individual owner and
such individual's spouse, parents and children, in the aggregate, does
not exceed [ten] five per cent of the total ownership or interest rights in
such applicant;
(D) A third-party local and national criminal background check for
each owner listed on such application, which background check shall (i)
be conducted by a third -party consumer reporting agency or
background screening company that is in compliance with the fe deral
Fair Credit Reporting Act and accredited by the Professional
Background Screening Association, (ii) include a multistate and
multijurisdiction criminal record locator or other similar commercial
nation-wide database with validation and such other background
screening as the commissioner may require, and (iii) be requested by
such applicant not more than sixty days prior to submission of such
application;
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(E) The name of the individual who shall serve as the fiduciary agent
and guarantor for such applicant, which individual shall be personally
liable in the event of any noncompliance that results in a debt owed to
the department;
(F) A disclosure of any enforcement action against, and any
negotiated settlement entered into by, such applicant or any owner
disclosed pursuant to this subsection, which action or settlement is
related to the sale of cigarettes, electronic nicotine delivery systems,
tobacco products or vapor products;
(G) The name of a manager or supervisor who is or will be physically
present at such applicant's location or proposed location; [and]
(H) A certification that (i) an authorized owner or named designee of
such applicant has successfully completed the online prevention
education program administered by the Department of Mental Health
and Addiction Services pursuant to section 17a -719, and (ii) all
electronic nicotine delivery systems and vapor products offered for sale
by the applicant on or after January 1, 2027, comply with federal and
state law, including the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, 21 USC
387 et seq., as amended from time to time;
(I) In the case of an application for an initial dealer registration
submitted on or after January 1, 2027, a certification that (i) such
applicant's annual gross revenue from sales of cigarettes, drug
paraphernalia, electronic nicotine delivery systems, n icotine products,
synthetic nicotine, tobacco products and vapor products will not exceed
fifty per cent of such applicant's annual gross revenue from all sales at
the location that is to be operated under such dealer registration, and (ii)
not more than t wenty-five per cent of the total floor area dedicated to
sales at the location that is to be operated under such dealer registration
will be dedicated to sales of cigarettes, drug paraphernalia, electronic
nicotine delivery systems, nicotine products, synthetic nicotine, tobacco
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products and vapor products; and
(J) In the case of an application for renewal of a dealer registration
initially issued on or after January 1, 2027, such information as the
department requires to determine that, during the registration period
immediately preceding such renewal, (i) such applicant's annual gross
revenue from sales of cigarettes, drug paraphernalia, electronic nicotine
delivery systems, nicotine products, synthetic nicotine, tobacco
products and vapor products did not exceed fifty per cent of such
applicant's annual gross revenue from all sales at the location operated
under such dealer registration, and (ii) not more than twenty -five per
cent of the total floor area dedicated to sales at the location operated
under such dealer registration was dedicated to sales of cigarettes, drug
paraphernalia, electronic nicotine delivery systems, nicotine products,
synthetic nicotine, tobacco products and vapor products.
(2) The Department of Consumer Protection: (A) May require that an
applicant submit documents sufficient to establish that state and local
building, fire and zoning requirements will be met at the location of any
sale; (B) may, in the department's discretion, conduct an investigation to
determine whether a dealer registration shall be issued to an applicant;
and (C) shall not issue a dealer registration or a renewal of a dealer
registration to an applicant unless the applicant certifies that an
authorized owner or named designee of the applicant has successfully
completed the online prevention education program administered by
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services pursuant to
section 17a-719.
(3) The commissioner shall issue a dealer registration or a renewal of
a dealer registration to any such applicant not later than thirty days after
the date of application , unless the commissioner finds: (A) The
applicant, or any individual named in such application pursuant to
subparagraph (C) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, has made a
materially false or misleading statement in such application or in any
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other application made to the commissioner; (B) the applicant has
neglected to pay any taxes due to this state; (C) the authorized owner or
named designee of the applicant has not successfully completed the
online prevention education program administered by the Department
of Mental Health and Addiction Services pursuant to section 17a -719;
(D) the third-party local and national criminal background check for any
authorized owner or named designee of the applicant [has a criminal
history that is] affords a sufficient basis for denial under section 46a-80;
[or] (E) the applicant , any authorized owner of the applicant or any
entity owned or managed by any individual named in the applicant's
application pursuant to subparagraph (C) of subdivision (1) of this
subsection (i) has [violated] committed multiple violations of any other
provision of this section , (ii) is the subject of a delinquency assessment
by the Department of Revenue Services, or (iii) is the subject of any other
adverse determination by a government agency; or (F) in the case of an
application for an initial dealer registration submitted on or after
January 1, 2027, that the commissioner has already issued one dealer
registration for every two thousand five hundred residents of the town
in which the location that is to be operated under such dealer
registration will be located, as determined by the most recently
completed decennial census.
(4) A dealer registration issued under this section shall be renewed
annually, [and] except the department shall not renew a dealer
registration initially issued on or after January 1, 2027, if the department
determines that the applicant for renewal of such dealer registration
does not satisfy the criteria established in subparagraph (J) of
subdivision (1) of this subsection. A dealer registration issued under this
section may be suspended or revoked at the discretion of the
Department of Consumer Protecti on. A dealer registration shall not
constitute property, nor shall it be subject to attachment and execution,
nor shall it be alienable. Each holder of a dealer registration shall
annually attest in each renewal application as to whether such holder
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derived at least fifty per cent of its annual gross revenue from sales of
cigarettes, drug paraphernalia, electronic nicotine delivery systems,
nicotine products, synthetic nicotine, tobacco products and vapor
products.
(5) The applicant shall pay to the department a nonrefundable
application fee of one thousand dollars, which fee shall be in addition to
the annual fee prescribed in subsection (d) of this section. An application
fee shall not be charged for an application to renew a dealer registration.
(d) The annual fee for a dealer registration shall be eight hundred
dollars.
(e) (1) The Department of Consumer Protection may renew a dealer
registration issued under this section that has expired if the applicant
pays to the department any late fee imposed by the Commissioner of
Consumer Protection pursuant to subsection (d) of section 21a-4, which
late fee shall be in addition to the fees prescribed in this section for the
dealer registration applied for.
(2) A person holding a dealer registration shall update, through the
Department of Consumer Protection's online licensing system, any
application information such person has provided to the department
pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, an y contact
information, ownership information or criminal histories of the
individual owners of the business entity, not later than thirty days after
any change in such information.
(3) A person holding a dealer registration shall be deemed to have
constructive notice of communications sent by the Commissioner of
Consumer Protection to an electronic mail address provided by such
person.
(f) (1) Any business entity in the state that sells, offers for sale or
possesses with intent to sell an electronic nicotine delivery system or
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vapor product without a dealer registration as required under this
section shall, after a hearing conducted pursuant to chapter 54, be fined
not more than five thousand dollars per violation.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this
subsection, any business entity with a dealer registration that has
expired for a period of ninety calendar days or less and that, during such
ninety-day period, sells, offers for sale or possesses with intent to sell an
electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product shall be fined not
more than five hundred dollars for each day such business entity is in
violation of the provisions of this subdivision.
[(3) A person holding a dealer registration shall update, through the
Department of Consumer Protection's online licensing system, any
application information such person has provided to the department
pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, an y contact
information, ownership information or criminal histories of the
individual owners of the business entity, not later than thirty days after
any change in such information.]
(g) (1) For sufficient cause found as set forth in subdivision (2) of this
subsection, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection may suspend or
revoke a dealer registration, issue fines of not more than ten thousand
dollars per violation, accept an offer in compromise or refuse to grant or
renew a dealer registration, [or] place the registrant on probation, place
conditions on such registrant or take other actions authorized by law.
No information derived from an inspection or investigation conducted
by the Department of Consumer Protection related to an administrative
complaint or case shall be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of
Information Act, as defined in section 1-200, unless the department has
entered into a settlement agreement, or otherwise co ncluded its
investigation or inspection as evidenced by case closure. Nothing in this
subdivision shall be construed to prevent the department from sharing
any information with another state or federal agency or law
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enforcement insofar as such information relates to an investigation of
any suspected violation of applicable law.
(2) Any of the following shall constitute sufficient cause for the
purposes of subdivision (1) of this subsection:
(A) Furnishing any false or fraudulent information in an application
or any failure to comply with the representations made in an
application;
(B) A civil judgment against, or conviction of, an owner or applicant,
after review and application of the denial criteria set forth in section 46a-
80;
(C) Any failure to maintain effective controls against diversion, theft
or loss of electronic nicotine delivery systems and vapor products;
(D) Any denial, suspension or revocation of a license or registration
related to the sale of cigarettes, electronic nicotine delivery systems,
tobacco products or vapor products, or any denial of a renewal of a
license or registration related to the sale of cigarettes, electronic nicotine
delivery systems, tobacco products or vapor products, by any federal,
state or local government or a foreign jurisdiction;
(E) Any false, misleading or deceptive representation made to the
public or to the department;
(F) Any involvement in a fraudulent or deceitful practice or
transaction;
(G) The possession, offer or sale of any illegal or controlled substance
by the registrant, any owner of the registrant or any person with a
financial interest in the registrant , unless otherwise permitted by
applicable law;
(H) Any failure to register a trade name of the business entity with
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the town in which the registrant engages in business;
(I) Any failure to notify the department of any change in the
information concerning the business entity, owners, ownership
information or designated manager or supervisor;
(J) Any adverse administrative decision or delinquency assessment
against the registrant by the Department of Revenue Services;
(K) Any failure to cooperate, provide unfettered access to the location
or provide information to the department, local law enforcement
authorities or any other enforcement agency concerning any matter
arising out of conduct in connection with a licensee or registrant;
(L) Advertising an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor
product in any manner that (i) is designed to appeal to individuals who
are younger than twenty -one years of age by, among other things, (I)
making use of any spokesperson or celebrity who appeals to individuals
who are under the legal age to purchase electronic nicotine delivery
systems or vapor products, (II) depicting any individual who is younger
than twenty -five years of age using an electronic nicotine delivery
system or vapor product, (I II) including any object, such as a toy,
character or cartoon character, that suggests the presence of an
individual who is younger than twenty-one years of age, or (IV) making
use of any other depiction or method that is designed in any manner to
be appealing to an individual who is younger than twenty-one years of
age, or (ii) claims or implies that (I) any electronic nicotine delivery
system or vapor product has any curative or therapeutic effect, or (II)
any medical claim is true;
(M) Allowing an employee to promote any electronic nicotine
delivery system or vapor product for a wellness purpose; [or]
(N) Any failure to maintain records, or make records immediately
available to the department, in accordance with the provisions of
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subdivision (4) of subsection (b) of this section; or
[(N)] (O) Any failure to comply with any provision of this chapter or
any regulation adopted pursuant to this chapter.
(h) (1) Upon refusal to issue or renew a dealer registration, the
Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall notify the applicant of the
denial and of the applicant's right to request a hearing not later than ten
days after the applicant receives the notice of denial. If the applicant
requests a hearing within such ten-day period, the commissioner shall
give notice of the grounds for the commissioner's refusal and shall
conduct a hearing concerning such refusal in accordance with the
provisions of chapter 54 concerning contested cases. If the
commissioner's denial is sustained after such hearing, the applicant
shall not apply for a new dealer registration for a period of one year after
the date on which such denial was sustained.
[(i)] (2) No person whose dealer registration has been revoked,
including the owners of such registrant, and any person with a financial
interest in such registrant, shall apply for a dealer registration or have a
financial interest in an applicant under this section for a period of one
year after the date of such revocation.
[(j)] (3) The voluntary surrender of a dealer registration, or the failure
to renew a dealer registration, shall not prevent the Commissioner of
Consumer Protection from suspending or revoking such dealer
registration or imposing other penalties permitted by applicable law.
(i) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may impose a civil
penalty of not more than five thousand dollars for each electronic
nicotine delivery system and vapor product sold, offered for sale or
marketed in violation of this section. For purposes of th is subdivision,
each such electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product shall
constitute a separate violation.
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(j) (1) Any electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product sold,
offered for sale or marketed in violation of this section by a registrant
shall be deemed a common nuisance and shall be subject to immediate
seizure by the state or local police. The authorized officer shall hold such
electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product subject to
confiscation and destruction by order of a court of competent
jurisdiction. All costs of such seizure, confiscation and destruction shall
be borne by the regi strant selling, offering for sale or marketing such
electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product.
(2) Any controlled substance or cannabis sold, offered for sale or
marketed by a registrant in violation of chapter 420b, 420f or 420h, as
applicable, or regulations adopted thereunder, shall be subject to the
provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection.
(k) A violation of this section shall be an unfair trade practice
pursuant to subsection (a) of section 42-110b.
[(k)] (l) All fees, settlement amounts and fines collected under this
section shall be deposited in the consumer protection enforcement
account established in section 21a-8a.
Sec. 34. Section 20 -419 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Business entity" means an association, corporation, limited
liability company, limited liability partnership or partnership.
(2) "Certificate" means a certificate of registration issued under
section 20-422.
(3) "Commissioner" means (A) the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection, and (B) any person designated by the commissioner to
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administer and enforce this chapter.
(4) (A) "Contractor" means any person who (i) owns and operates a
home improvement business, or (ii) undertakes, offers to undertake or
agrees to perform any home improvement.
(B) "Contractor" does not include a person for whom the total price
of all of such person's home improvement contracts with all of such
person's customers does not exceed one thousand dollars during any
period of twelve consecutive months.
(5) (A) "Home improvement" includes, but is not limited to, the
repair, replacement, remodeling, alteration, conversion, modernization,
improvement, rehabilitation or sandblasting of, or addition to, any land
or building or that portion thereof which is used or designed to be used
as a private residence, dwelling place or residential rental property, or
the construction, replacement, installation or improvement of alarm
systems not requiring electrical work, as defined in section 20 -330, as
amended by this act, driveways, swimming pools, porches, garages,
roofs, siding, insulation, sunrooms, flooring, patios, landscaping, fences,
doors and windows, waterproofing, water, fire or storm restoration or
mold remediation in connection with such land or building or th at
portion thereof which is used or designed to be used as a private
residence, dwelling place or residential rental property or the removal
or replacement of a residential underground heating oil storage tank
system, in which the total price for all wo rk agreed upon between the
contractor and owner or proposed or offered by the contractor exceeds
two hundred dollars.
(B) "Home improvement" does not include (i) the construction of a
new home, (ii) the sale of goods or materials by a seller who neither
arranges to perform nor performs, directly or indirectly, any work or
labor in connection with the installation or applicati on of the goods or
materials, (iii) the sale of goods or services furnished for commercial or
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business use or for resale, provided commercial or business use does not
include use as residential rental property, (iv) the sale of appliances,
such as stoves, refrigerators, freezers, room air conditioners and others,
which are designed for and are easi ly removable from the premises
without material alteration thereof, (v) tree or shrub cutting or the
grinding of tree stumps, and (vi) any work performed without
compensation by the owner on such owner's own private residence or
residential rental property.
(6) "Home improvement contract" means an agreement between a
contractor and an owner for the performance of a home improvement.
(7) "Mold" means any form of fungi that grows in the form of
multicellular filaments known as hyphae and reproduces by way of
small spores.
(8) "Mold remediation" means the removal, cleaning, sanitizing,
demolition or other treatment of mold or mold -contaminated matter in
a building.
[(7)] (9) "Owner" means a person who owns or resides in a private
residence and includes any agent thereof, including, but not limited to,
a condominium association. An owner of a private residence shall not
be required to reside in such residence to be deemed an ow ner under
this subdivision.
[(8)] (10) "Person" means an individual or a business entity.
[(9)] (11) "Private residence" means a single family dwelling, a
multifamily dwelling consisting of not more than six units, or a unit,
common element or limited common element in a condominium, as
defined in section 47 -68a, or in a common interest community, as
defined in section 47 -202, or any number of condominium units for
which a condominium association acts as an agent for such unit owners.
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[(10)] (12) "Proprietor" means an individual who (A) has an
ownership interest in a business entity that holds or has held a certificate
of registration issued under this chapter, and (B) has been found by a
court of competent jurisdiction to have violated any provisi on of this
chapter related to the conduct of a business entity holding a certificate
or that has held a certificate issued under this chapter within the two
years of the effective date of entering into a contract with an owner
harmed by the actions of such individual or business entity.
[(11)] (13) "Salesman" means any individual who (A) negotiates or
offers to negotiate a home improvement contract with an owner, or (B)
solicits or otherwise endeavors to procure by any means whatsoever,
directly or indirectly, a home improvement contract from an owne r on
behalf of a contractor.
[(12)] (14) "Residential rental property" means a single family
dwelling, a multifamily dwelling consisting of not more than six units,
or a unit, common element or limited common element in a
condominium, as defined in section 47 -68a, or in a common interest
community, as defined in section 47-202, which is not owner-occupied.
[(13)] (15) "Residential underground heating oil storage tank system"
means an underground storage tank system used with or without
ancillary components in connection with real property composed of
four or less residential units.
[(14)] (16) "Underground storage tank system" means an
underground tank or combination of tanks, with any underground
pipes or ancillary equipment or containment systems connected to such
tank or tanks, used to contain an accumulation of petroleum, which
volume is ten per cent or more beneath the surface of the ground.
Sec. 35. Subsection (a) of section 20 -420 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
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1, 2026):
(a) (1) No person shall hold such person out to be a contractor or
salesperson without first obtaining a certificate of registration from the
commissioner as provided in this chapter, except [(1)] (A) that an
individual or partner, or officer or director of a corporation registered
as a contractor shall not be required to obtain a salesperson's certificate,
and [(2)] (B) as provided in subsections (e) and (f) of this section.
(2) No certificate shall be given to any person who holds such person
out to be a contractor that performs radon mitigation unless such
contractor provides evidence, satisfactory to the commissioner, that the
contractor is certified as a radon mitigator by the National Radon Safety
Board or the National Environmental Health Association.
(3) No certificate shall be given to any person who holds such person
out to be a contractor that performs removal or replacement of any
residential underground heating oil storage tank system unless such
contractor provides evidence, satisfactory to the commissioner, that the
contractor (A) has completed a hazardous material training program
approved by the Department of Energy and Environmental Protection,
and (B) has presented evidence of liability insurance coverage of one
million dollars.
(4) No certificate shall be given to any person who holds such person
out to be a contractor that performs mold remediation unless such
contractor provides an attestation, satisfactory to the commissioner, that
the contractor (A) is certified in mold remediation by the Institute of
Inspection Cleaning and Restoration Certif ication, (B) is certified as a
mold remediator by the National Organization of Remediators and
Microbial Inspectors, or (C) is certified to perform mold remediation by
any organization ap proved by the commissioner, provided the
commissioner posts notice of such approval and the name of such
approved organization on the department's Internet web site.
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Sec. 36. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2026) No contractor shall perform
any mold remediation in this state unless such contractor performs such
remediation in accordance with the ANSI/IICRC S520 "Standard for
Professional Mold Remediation, Fourth Edition", or any successor or
revision to said standard approved by the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection, provided the commissioner posts notice of such approval
and the name of such approved successor or revision on the Department
of Consumer Protection's Internet web site.
Sec. 37. (NEW) ( Effective October 1, 2026 ) The Department of
Consumer Protection shall, within available appropriations, make
available on the department's Internet web site information for
homeowners who have suffered a catastrophic loss due to fire or water
damage and are seeking to engage professionals.
Sec. 38. Subparagraph (E) of subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of
section 1 of public act 26-6 is repealed and the following is substituted
in lieu thereof (Effective January 1, 2027):
(E) While the consumer is in any area of a facility or institution that
is used to provide any health care service or veterinary service,
including, but not limited to, any examination room or operating room,
unless (i) such facility or institution does no t include an area that is
separated from the areas of such facility or institution used to provide
health care services or veterinary services, or (ii) if such consumer's
animal or an animal under such consumer's care is receiving any
veterinary service, relocating such consumer to an area that is separated
from the areas of such facility or institution used to provide veterinary
services would , [not,] in the veterinary care provider's professional
judgment, pose a risk of harm to such animal;
Sec. 39. Section 1 of public act 26-64 is repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
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As used in this section and sections 2 to 10, inclusive, of [this act ]
public act 26-64 and this act, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Accessible deletion mechanism" means the mechanism
established pursuant to subsection (a) of section 5 of [this act] public act
26-64 and this act;
(2) "Applicant" means any data broker that submits an application for
an initial registration, or for a registration renewal, under subsection (b)
of section 2 of [this act] public act 26-64;
(3) "Brokered personal data" means one or more of the following
personal data elements concerning a consumer, if categorized or
organized for sale or license to a third party: (A) Name; (B) address; (C)
date of birth; (D) place of birth; (E) mother's maide n name; (F) unique
biometric data (i) generated from measurement or technical analysis of
a human body characteristic, including, but not limited to, a fingerprint,
retina or iris image or other unique physical or digital representation of
biometric data, and (ii) used by the owner or licensee of such unique
biometric data to identify or authenticate the consumer; (G) name or
address of a member of the consumer's immediate family or household;
(H) Social Security number or other government -issued identification
number; or (I) other information that, alone or in combination with the
other information sold or licensed, would allow a reasonable person to
identify the consumer with reasonable certainty;
(4) "Business" (A) means (i) any person who regularly engages in
commercial activities for the purpose of generating income, (ii) any
bank, Connecticut credit union, federal credit union, out -of-state bank,
out-of-state trust company or out-of-state credit union, as such terms are
defined in section 36a-2 of the general statutes, and (iii) any other person
who controls, is controlled by or is under common control with any
person described in subparagraph (A)(i) or (A)(ii) of this subdivision,
and (B) does n ot include any b ody, authority, board, bureau,
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commission, district or agency of this state or of any political
subdivision of this state;
(5) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection;
(6) "Consumer" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -515
of the general statutes, as amended by [this act] public act 26-64;
(7) "Data broker" means any business or, if such business is not an
individual, any portion of such business that sells or licenses brokered
personal data to another person;
[(8) "Data service provider" means any person who maintains
personal data on behalf of a registered data broker;]
[(9)] (8) "Deletion request" means any request submitted by a
consumer under subparagraph (A)(i) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a)
of section 5 of [this act] public act 26-64 and this act;
[(10)] (9) "Department" means the Department of Consumer
Protection;
[(11)] (10) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act of 1996, 42 USC 1320d et seq., as amended from time
to time;
[(12)] (11) "License" (A) means to grant access to, or distribute,
brokered personal data in exchange for consideration, and (B) does not
include using any personal data for the sole benefit of the person who
provided such personal data if such person maintains contr ol over the
use of such personal data;
[(13)] (12) "Minor" means any consumer who is younger than
eighteen years of age;
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[(14)] (13) "Participating consumer" means any consumer who
submits a verified deletion request;
[(15)] (14) "Person" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -
515 of the general statutes, as amended by [this act] public act 26-64;
[(16)] (15) "Personal data" has the same meaning as provided in
section 42-515 of the general statutes, as amended by [this act] public act
26-64;
[(17)] (16) "Registered data broker" means any data broker that is
actively registered as a data broker in accordance with the provisions of
section 2 of [this act] public act 26-64; and
[(18)] (17) "Unregistered data broker" means any data broker that is
not actively registered as a data broker in accordance with the
provisions of section 2 of [this act] public act 26-64.
Sec. 40. Section 5 of public act 26-64 is repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) (1) Not later than July 1, 2028, the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection shall establish an accessible deletion mechanism program. As
part of the accessible deletion mechanism program, the commissioner
shall establish an accessible deletion mechanism that:
(A) Enables a consumer to (i) submit a deletion request, in a verifiable
form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, without charge to
the consumer and in [any language spoken ] English, Spanish or any
other language spoken by a consumer for whom a registered data
broker has collected personal data and at home by at least one per cent
of the state's population, according to statistics prepared by the United
States Census Bureau based on the most recent decennial census , that
all registered data brokers [and data service providers ] delete the
consumer's personal data, and (ii) specifically exclude one or more
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registered data brokers [, and all data service providers for such
registered data broker or brokers, ] from the consumer's deletion
request;
(B) Enables a consumer to (i) securely submit, in a form and manner
prescribed by the commissioner, (I) [the consumer's motor vehicle
operator's license number ] information sufficient to establish that the
consumer is a resident of this state , and (II) additional personal data to
aid in processing the consumer's deletion request, (ii) determine the
status of the consumer's deletion request, and (iii) not more frequently
than once during any forty -five-day period, submit an update to the
participating consumer's verified deletion request in a verifiable form
and manner prescribed by the commissioner, without charge to such
participating consumer and in [any language spoken] English, Spanish
or any other language spoken by a consumer for whom a registered data
broker has collected personal data and at home by at least one per cent
of the state's population, according to statistics prepared by the United
States Census Bureau based on the most recent decennial census;
(C) Enables a registered data broker to determine whether a
consumer has specifically excluded the registered data broker [, and all
data service providers for such registered data broker, ] from the
consumer's deletion request or any update thereto;
(D) Does not enable a registered data broker that accesses the
accessible deletion mechanism for the purposes set forth in
subparagraph (C) of this subdivision to access any additional personal
data by way of such accessible deletion mechanism;
(E) Is readily accessible and usable by consumers with disabilities;
(F) Incorporates reasonable security safeguards, including, but not
limited to, administrative, physical and technical safeguards, to protect
consumers' personal data from any unauthorized use, disclosure,
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access, destruction or modification by way of the accessible deletion
mechanism; and
(G) Provides, in a manner that is readily understandable by
consumers, (i) a description of what constitutes personal data and
therefore may be subject to a deletion request, (ii) an explanation of the
processes for a consumer to submit and update a deleti on request, and
(iii) a description of the actions required under subsections (b) and (c) of
this section.
(2) (A) If a consumer submits the consumer's motor vehicle operator's
license number to the commissioner for the purpose of verifying such
consumer's deletion request or any update thereto, the commissioner
shall use such consumer's motor vehicle operator' s license number to
verify such deletion request or update and for no other purpose. [The
commissioner shall not share, store or retain such consumer's motor
vehicle operator's license number.]
(B) Each deletion request and update thereto is confidential and shall
not be deemed a public record for the purposes of the Freedom of
Information Act, as defined in section 1-200 of the general statutes.
(b) On and after August 15, 2028, and except as provided in section 7
of [this act] public act 26-64, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection,
or the commissioner's authorized agent, shall:
(1) Verify that the consumer who purportedly submitted a deletion
request or update thereto actually submitted such deletion request or
update by using information submitted by such [consumer's motor
vehicle operator's license number] consumer sufficient to establish that
such consumer is a resident of this state and, following such verification,
update the accessible deletion mechanism to inform each registered data
broker that accesses the accessible deletion mechanism that such
deletion request or update has been verified; and
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(2) If the commissioner, or the commissioner's authorized agent,
cannot verify that the consumer who purportedly submitted a deletion
request or update thereto actually submitted such deletion request or
update, specify that all registered data brokers [, and all data service
providers for such registered data brokers, ] that are not specifically
excluded from such unverified deletion request or such unverified
update (A) may retain any personal data such registered data brokers
[and data service providers ] maintain concerning such consumer, and
(B) shall process such unverified deletion request or such unverified
update as an exercise of such consumer's right under subparagraph (B)
of subdivision (5) of subsection (a) of section 42 -518 of the general
statutes, as amended by [this act] public act 26-64.
(c) (1) On and after October 1, 2028, and except as provided in section
7 of [this act] public act 26 -64, each registered data broker shall access
the accessible deletion mechanism at least once every forty-five days to:
(A) Examine each deletion request or update thereto to determine
whether such registered data broker [, and all data service providers for
such registered data broker, are ] is specifically excluded from such
deletion request or update; and
(B) (i) For each verified deletion request or verified update thereto
that does not specifically exclude such registered data broker, [and all
data service providers for such registered data broker, and ] subject to
the exceptions set forth in subdivision (5) of this subsection, delete any
personal data such registered data broker maintains concerning the
participating consumer , [and direct all d ata service providers that
maintain any personal data concerning the participating consumer on
behalf of such registered data broker to delete such personal data ]
except such registered data broker shall maintain any such personal
data to the extent that maintaining such personal data is necessary to
comply with the provisions of this section and, if such registered data
broker maintains such personal data for such purpose, not use such
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personal data for any other purpose; or
(ii) For each unverified deletion request or unverified update thereto
that does not specifically exclude such registered data broker, [and all
data service providers for such registered data broker, ] (I) retain any
personal data such registered data broker maintains concerning the
consumer, and (II) process such unverified deletion request or such
unverified update [, and direct all d ata service providers for such
registered data broker to process such unverified deletion request or
such unverified update, ] as an exercise of the consumer's right under
subparagraph (B) of subdivision (5) of subsection (a) of section 42-518 of
the general statutes, as amended by [this act] public act 26-64.
(2) At least once every forty -five days after a registered data broker
first deletes a participating consumer's personal data pursuant to
subparagraph (B)(i) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, repeat the
actions required under subparagraph (B)(i) of su bdivision (1) of this
subsection unless:
(A) Such registered data broker verifies that the participating
consumer has submitted a verified update to a verified deletion request
such participating consumer previously submitted to the accessible
deletion mechanism; and
(B) Such verified update specifically excludes such registered data
broker [and all data service providers for such registered data broker ]
from the verified updated deletion request.
(3) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may impose a fee on
each registered data broker that accesses the accessible deletion
mechanism for the purposes of performing such registered data broker's
duties under subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection. Such fee shall
be in an amount determined by the commissioner, but shall not exceed
the cost of providing s uch access. All fees collected under this
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subdivision shall be deposited in the data broker registration account
established in section 8 of [this act] public act 26-64.
(4) On and after October 1, 2028, and except as provided in
subdivision (5) of this subsection, no registered data broker [, and no
data service provider for such registered data broker, ] that deletes a
participating consumer's personal data pursuant to subparagraph (B)(i)
of subdivision (1) of this subsection or subdivision (2) of this subsection
shall maintain, use or disclose any personal data such registered data
broker [or data service provider] subsequently acquires concerning the
participating consumer.
(5) (A) No registered data broker who maintains a participating
consumer's personal data [, and no data service provider for such
registered data broker, ] shall be required to delete the participating
consumer's personal data, and may maintain, use or disclose such
consumer's personal data, to the extent that maintaining, using or
disclosing such participating consumer's personal data is reasonably
necessary to (i) comply with any federal, state or municipal law,
ordinance or regulation, (ii) comply with any civil, criminal or
regulatory inquiry, investigation, subpoena or summons by any federal,
state, municipal or other governm ental authority, (iii) cooperate with
any law enforcement agency concerning any conduct or activity that
such registered data broker [or data service provider] reasonably and in
good faith believes may violate any federal, state or municipal law,
ordinance or regulation, (iv) investigate, establish, exercise, prepare for
or defend any legal claim, (v) provide any product or service specifically
requested by such participating consumer, (vi) perform pursuant to any
contract to which such participating consumer is a party, including, but
not limited to, by fulfilling the terms of a written warranty, (vii) take any
step at the request of such participating consumer prior to entering into
a contract, (viii) take any immediate step to protect any interest that is
essential for the life or physical safety of such participating consumer or
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another individual, (ix) prevent, detect, protect against or respond to
any security incident, identity theft, fraud, harassment, malicious or
deceptive activity or any illegal activity, preserve the integrity or
security of any system or investigate, repo rt or prosecute those
responsible for any such action, (x) engage in any public or peer -
reviewed scientific or statistical research in the public interest that
adheres to all other applicable ethics and privacy laws and is approved,
monitored and governed by an institutional review board, or a similar
independent oversight entity, that determines that (I) maintaining such
participating consumer's personal data is likely to provide substantial
benefits that do not exclusively accrue to such registered data b roker,
[or data service provider, ] (II) the expected benefits of such research
outweigh the privacy risks, and (III) such registered data broker [or data
service provider ] has implemented reasonable safeguards to mitigate
any privacy risk associated with s uch research, (xi) assist any other
person in performing any obligation imposed under sections 1 to 10,
inclusive, of [this act] public act 26-64 and this act, (xii) conduct internal
research to develop, improve or repair any product, service or
technology, (xiii) effectuate a product recall, (xiv) identify and repair
any technical error that impairs existing or intended functionality, or
(xv) perform internal operations that are reasonably aligned with the
expectations such participating consumer had, or r easonably
anticipated, based on such participating consumer's existing
relationship with such registered data broker.
(B) Except as provided in section 7 of [this act] public act 26 -64, no
registered data broker [, or data service provider for such registered data
broker,] that maintains, uses or discloses a participating consumer's
personal data for any purpose set forth in subparagraph (A) of this
subdivision shall maintain, use or disclose the participating consumer's
personal data for any other purpose.
(d) (1) Except as provided in section 7 of [this act] public act 26 -64,
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not later than July 1, 2031, and triennially thereafter, each registered data
broker shall, at the expense of such registered data broker, (A) retain an
independent auditor to (i) audit the books of such registered data broker
to determine whether such registered data broker is in compliance with
the provisions of subsection (c) of this section, (ii) prepare an audit
report disclosing the results of such audit, and (iii) submit such audit
report, and any materials associated therewith, to such registered da ta
broker, and (B) maintain each audit report, and any materials associated
therewith, that are submitted to such registered data broker pursuant to
subparagraph (A)(iii) of this subdivision for a period of at least six years
beginning on the date on which such audit report and materials are
submitted to such registered data broker.
(2) Except as provided in section 7 of [this act ] public act 26 -64, a
registered data broker shall submit an audit report and the materials
described in subparagraph (A)(iii) of subdivision (1) of this subsection
to the Department of Consumer Protection, in a form and manner
prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, not later than
five business days after the department sends notice to the registered
data broker disclosing that the department requires such registered data
broker to submit such audit report and materials to the department.
(e) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may enter into a
contract with one or more public or private entities (1) for any services
necessary to implement the provisions of subsections (a) to (d),
inclusive, of this section, (2) to administer the accessible deletion
mechanism program established pursuant to subsection (a) of this
section, or (3) to administer a multistate accessible deletion mechanism
program.
Sec. 41. Subdivision (1) of section 6 of public act 26-64 is repealed and
the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(1) The total number of deletion requests, inclusive of any updates
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thereto, that such business accessed during the preceding calendar year
and that did not specifically exclude such business; [and all data service
providers for such business;]
Sec. 42. Subsection (a) of section 7 of public act 26-64 is repealed and
the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) The provisions of sections 1 to 10, inclusive, of [this act] public act
26-64 shall not apply to: (1) [A] Personal data collected, processed, sold
or disclosed in compliance with the Driver's Privacy Protection Act of
1994, 18 USC 2721 et seq., as amended from time to time; (2) a covered
entity, business associate or protected health information under the
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, P.L. 104 -
191, as amended from time to time; (3) a consumer reporting agency, as
defined in 15 USC 1681a(f), as amended from time to time, a person who
furnishes information to a consumer reporting agency, as provided in
15 USC 1681s-2, as amended from time to time, or a user of a consumer
report, as defined in 15 USC 1681a(d), as amended from time to time, to
the extent that the consumer reporting agency, person or user engages
in activities that are subject to regulation under the Fair Credit
Reporting Act, 15 USC 1681 et seq., as amended from time to time; [(2)]
(4) a financial institution, an affiliate or a nonaffiliated third party, as
such terms are defined in 15 USC 6809, as amended from time to time,
to the extent that the financial institution, affiliate or nonaffiliated third
party engages in activities that are subject to regulation under Title V of
the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 USC 6801 et seq., and the regulations
adopted thereunder, as said act and such regulations may be amended
from time to time; [(3)] (5) a business that collects information
concerning a consumer if the consumer is or was (A) in a contractual
relationship with the business, (B) an investor in the business, (C) a
donor to the business, or (D) in any relationship with the business that
is si milar t o the relationships described in subparagraphs (A) to (C),
inclusive, of this subdivision; [(4)] (6) a business that performs services
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for, or is acting as an agent or otherwise on behalf of, a business
described in subdivision [(3)] (5) of this subsection or a governmental
entity; [(5)] (7) a business collecting data used for purposes of the
regulation of listed chemicals as set forth in 21 USC 830, as amended
from time to time; [(6)] (8) a candidate committee, national committee,
party committee or political committee, as such terms are defined in
section 9 -601 of the general statutes; and [(7)] (9) a covered entity or
business associate, as defined in 45 CFR 160.103.
Sec. 43. Section 10 of public act 26-64 is repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
The Commissioner of Consumer Protection, after providing notice
and conducting a hearing in accordance with the provisions of chapter
54 of the general statutes, may impose a civil penalty of not more than
two hundred dollars per day per consumer for each violation of any
provision of sections 2 to 8, inclusive, of [this act] public act 26-64. Any
civil penalties collected under this section shall be deposited in the data
broker registration account established in section 8 of [this act] public
act 26-64.
Sec. 44. (NEW) (Effective February 1, 2027) (a) As used in this section:
(1) "Bona fide market price" means the price at which a consumer
good or consumer service is advertised to the public on a regular basis
by the retail seller or third -party delivery service for a reasonably
substantial period of time;
(2) "Consumer" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -515
of the general statutes;
(3) "Consumer good" means any article that is purchased, leased,
exchanged or received primarily for personal, family or household
purposes;
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(4) "Consumer service" means any service that is purchased, leased,
exchanged or received primarily for personal, family or household
purposes;
(5) "Discounted price" means any price for a consumer good or
consumer service that is (A) established for, or offered to, a consumer or
group of consumers, and (B) verifiably lower than the generally
available, publicly disclosed and bona fide market price established for
the consumer good or consumer service;
(6) "Person" means any individual, association, corporation, limited
liability company, partnership, trust or other legal entity;
(7) "Personal data" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -
515 of the general statutes;
(8) "Retail seller" (A) means a retailer, as defined in section 12 -407 of
the general statutes, to the extent such retailer is engaged in making in-
person sales, at retail, of tangible personal property, and (B) includes,
but is not limited to, a retail food establishment;
(9) "Surveillance pricing" means the practice of establishing a
customized price for a consumer good or consumer service that is
specific to a consumer or group of consumers based, in whole or in part,
on the consumer's personal data collected (A) through any technology
or technological method, system or tool, including, but not limited to,
any biometric monitoring, camera, device tracking or sensor, that is
used to gather personal data in a physical or digital environment, and
(B) by the person establishin g the customized price either directly or
indirectly by gathering, purchasing or otherwise acquiring such
personal data from a third party; and
(10) "Third-party delivery service" means a company, organization or
entity, outside of the operation of a retail food establishment's business,
that facilitates delivery or online ordering services to customers of a
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retail food establishment.
(b) (1) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, any person
doing business in the state who engages in surveillance pricing for any
reason other than to establish a discounted price for a consumer good
or consumer service to be sold, leased, exchanged or provided as part of
an online transaction, and who directly or indirectly advertises or
promotes online a price established for a consumer good or consumer
service by using surveillance pricing, labels a consumer good with such
price online or publishes an online statement, display, image, offer or
announcement disclosing such price, shall include in such online
advertisement, promotion, label, statement, display, image, offer or
announcement the following disclosure, or a substantially similar
disclosure: "THIS PRICE WAS INCREASED USING YOUR PERSONAL
DATA". Any person doing business in this state who is required to
include such disclosure shall disclose to consumers their rights under
section 42-518 of the general statutes. No disclosure shall b e required
under this subdivision if the advertised, promoted, labeled or published
price is the bona fide market price.
(2) The disclosure required under subdivision (1) of this subsection
shall be readily visible to the average consumer.
(c) (1) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, no retail
seller or third -party delivery service doing business in the state shall
engage in surveillance pricing.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this
subsection, the following shall not be deemed to constitute surveillance
pricing:
(A) Establishing for, or offering to, a consumer a discounted price for
a consumer good or consumer service for purposes such as retaining a
consumer as a customer, reestablishing a consumer as a customer,
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attracting a consumer as a new customer, cross -selling an item to a
consumer or reengaging a lapsed customer;
(B) Establishing for, or offering to, different consumers different
prices for the same consumer good or consumer service due to (i)
justifiable differences in the costs incurred in providing such consumer
good or consumer service to such consumers, including, but not limited
to, justifiable differences in consumers' physical locations, consumer
selections, delivery distances or delivery times, or (ii) justifiable
temporal differences, including, but not limited to, justifiable temporal
differences due to price fluctuations based on supply and demand;
(C) Establishing for, or offering to, a consumer or group of consumers
a discounted price for a consumer good or consumer service (i) based
on publicly disclosed discounted prices and uniform terms and
conditions that may be satisfied by any consumer, incl uding, but not
limited to, by signing up for a mailing list, registering for promotional
communications or participating in a p romotional event, (ii) that is
available to all consumers who are members of a broadly defined group,
including, but not limited to, veterans or members of the armed forces,
senior citizens, students, teachers or residents of a specific area, based
on publicly disclosed discounts and uniform terms and conditions, or
(iii) through a loyalty, membership or rewards program in which
consumers must affirmatively enroll. The retail seller or t hird-party
delivery service shall prominently post the discount and discounted
price, and the uniform terms and conditions for such discount and
discounted price, on such retail seller's or third-party delivery service's
Internet web site in language that is readily understandable by the
average consumer; or
(D) Correcting a price resulting from a pricing error or resetting a
price following a system or network outage.
(d) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this section shall not
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be construed to apply to:
(1) Any person licensed, authorized to operate or registered, or
required to be licensed, authorized to operate or registered, pursuant to
the insurance laws of this state; or
(2) Any person who can demonstrate that any refusal to extend credit,
the terms, rates or pricing on which any credit or financial services are
extended or any refusal to enter into a transaction with a specific
consumer is based on (A) data provided in a consumer report covered
by the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 USC 1681 et seq., as amended from
time to time , or (B) data reflecting factors a creditor is permitted to
consider under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 USC 1681 et seq.,
as amended from time to time, and the regulations promulgated under
said act.
(e) Any violation of the provisions of subsections (b) to (d), inclusive,
of this section shall constitute an unfair or deceptive trade practice for
the purposes of subsection (a) of section 42 -110b of the general statutes
and shall be enforced solely by t he Attorney General. Nothing in this
section shall be construed to create a private right of action or to provide
grounds for an action under section 42-110g of the general statutes.
Sec. 45. Subsection (a) of section 42-524 of the 2026 supplement to the
general statutes, as amended by section 12 of public act 25 -113, is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
(a) (1) Nothing in sections 42 -515 to 42 -526, inclusive, shall be
construed to restrict a controller's, processor's or consumer health data
controller's ability to: [(1)] (A) Comply with federal, state or municipal
ordinances or regulations; [(2)] (B) comply with a civil, criminal or
regulatory inquiry, investigation, subpoena or summons by federal,
state, municipal or other governmental authorities; [(3)] (C) cooperate
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with law enforcement agencies concerning conduct or activity that the
controller, processor or consumer health data controller reasonably and
in good faith believes may violate federal, state or municipal ordinances
or regulations; [(4)] (D) investigate, establish, exercise, prepare for or
defend legal claims; [(5)] (E) provide a product or service specifically
requested by a consumer; [(6)] (F) perform [under] pursuant to a
contract to which a consumer is a party, including fulfilling the terms of
a written warranty; [(7)] (G) take steps at the request of a consumer prior
to entering into a contract; [(8)] (H) take immediate steps to protect an
interest that is essential for the life or physical safety of the consumer or
another individual , and where the processing cannot be manifestly
based on another legal basis; [(9)] (I) prevent, detect, protect against or
respond to security incidents, identity theft, fraud, harassment,
malicious or deceptive activities or any illegal activity, preserve the
integrity or security of systems or investigate, report or prosecute those
responsible for any such action; [(10)] (J) engage in public or peer -
reviewed scientific or statistical research in the public interest that
adheres to all other applicable ethics and privacy laws and is approved,
monitored and governed by an institutional review board that
determines, or similar independent oversight entities that determine,
[(A)] (i) whether the deletion of the information is likely to provide
substantial benefits that do not exclusively accrue to the controller or
consumer health data controller, [(B)] (ii) the expected benefits of the
research outweigh the privacy risks, and [(C)] (iii) whether the
controller or consumer health data controller has implemente d
reasonable safeguards to mitigate privacy risks associated with
research, including any risks associated with re-identification; [(11)] (K)
assist another controller, processor, consumer health data controller or
third party with any of the obligations under sections 42 -515 to 42-526,
inclusive; or [(12)] (L) process personal data for reasons of public interest
in the area of public health, community health or population health, but
solely to the extent that such processing is [(A)] (i) subject to suitabl e
and specific measures to safeguard the rights of the consumer whose
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personal data are being processed, and [(B)] (ii) under the responsibility
of a professional subject to confidentiality obligations under federal,
state or local law.
(2) (A) A controller or consumer health data controller that uses any
facial recognition technology on its premises to prevent, detect, protect
against or respond to security incidents, identity theft, fraud,
harassment, malicious or deceptive activities o r any illegal activity,
preserve the integrity or security of systems or investigate, report or
prosecute those responsible for any such action shall: (i) Exclusively use
such facial recognition technology to match still images or video to a
database maintained exclusively by such controller or consumer health
data controller; and (ii) post clearly legible signage at each entrance to
the premises where the facial recognition technology described in
subparagraph (A)(i) of this subdivision is in use, other than an entrance
to an area where access is restricted to authorized employees, (I) alerting
consumers entering such premises that facial recognition technology is
in use at such premises, and (II) that includes a conspicuous hyperlink
or quick response code that directs consumers to the facial recognition
technology policy maintained by such controller or consumer health
data controller.
(B) Each facial recognition technology policy maintained pursuant to
subparagraph (A)(ii)(II) of this subdivision: (i) Shall include contact
information for the office of the Attorney General; and (ii) may disclose
the controller's or consumer health data controller's policies concerning
interactions between such controller's or consumer health data
controller's loss prevention officers and consumers.
(C) No controller or consumer health data controller shall be required
to satisfy the requirements established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of
this subdivision with respect to a consumer if the controller or consumer
health data controller has obtained the consumer's consent to use facial
recognition technology in the course of a commercial transaction.
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Sec. 46. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2026) (a) As used in this section:
(1) "Consumer" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -515
of the general statutes;
(2) "Generative artificial intelligence system" (A) means any
technology that uses machine learning to generate images, audio or
video, and (B) includes, but is not limited to, any system utilizing deep
learning, natural language processing or other comput ational
processing techniques of similar or greater complexity;
(3) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, limited
liability company, partnership, trust or other legal entity;
(4) "Subscription" means an agreement between a subscription-based
provider and a consumer under which the subscription-based provider
offers a generative artificial intelligence system to the consumer in
exchange for a fee, remuneration or compensation of any kind from the
consumer; and
(5) "Subscription-based provider" (A) means a person doing business
in the state who (i) creates, codes or otherwise produces a generative
artificial intelligence system that (I) has more than one million users per
month, and (II) is publicly accessible to consumers for personal use, and
(ii) provides, or offers to provide, the generative artificial intelligence
system to a consumer pursuant to a subscription, and (B) does not
include any federal, state or local government agency.
(b) (1) No subscription -based provider shall enter into or renew a
subscription with a consumer, or collect any fee, remuneration or
compensation of any kind from a consumer for an initial subscription or
subscription renewal, unless:
(A) The subscription-based provider has provided to the consumer a
written notice disclosing the key terms and conditions of the
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subscription; and
(B) The consumer has provided to the subscription-based provider a
written notice disclosing that the consumer has accepted the key terms
and conditions of the subscription.
(2) The written notice required under subparagraph (A) of
subdivision (1) of this subsection shall, at a minimum, set forth:
(A) In the case of an initial subscription, material information that is
sufficient to enable a reasonable consumer to decide whether to
purchase or maintain the subscription, which information shall include,
but need not be limited to:
(i) Any quantitative or qualitative limitations, including, but not
limited to, any limitations on tokens, images generated or modified or
transcription services, the subscription -based provider may impose
under the terms of such subscription, including, but not limited to, any
such limitations the subscription -based provider may impose in
response to conduct by the consumer under such subscription; and
(ii) Whether the subscription -based provider has discretion to limit
or eliminate the consumer's access to, or reduce the quantity or quality
of, any functionality of the generative artificial intelligence system
offered under such subscription; and
(B) In the case of a subscription renewal:
(i) Any quantitative or qualitative limitations described in
subparagraph (A)(i) of this subdivision that (I) will be imposed for the
first time during the subscription renewal term, or (II) were imposed for
the immediately preceding subscription term but have been modified
for the subscription renewal term; and
(ii) Any discretion described in subparagraph (A)(ii) of this
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subdivision that the subscription -based provider (I) will be able to
exercise for the first time during the subscription renewal term, or (II)
was able to exercise during the immediately preceding subscription
term but has been modified for the subscription renewal term.
(c) Any violation of the provisions of subsection (b) of this section
shall constitute an unfair or deceptive trade practice for the purposes of
subsection (a) of section 42 -110b of the general statutes and shall be
enforced solely by the Attorney General. The provisions of section 42 -
110g of the general statutes , shall not apply to any such violation.
Nothing in this section shall be construed as providing the basis for a
private right of action.
Sec. 47. (Effective October 1, 2027) (a) As used in this section:
(1) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection;
(2) "Department" means the Department of Consumer Protection;
(3) "Independent verification organization" means an independent
third-party entity approved as part of the pilot program to assess the
adherence of artificial intelligence models to standards reflecting best
practices for risk mitigation and the prevention of harm;
(4) "Person" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -110a of
the general statutes; and
(5) "Pilot program" means the pilot program established pursuant to
subsection (b) of this section.
(b) The Department of Consumer Protection shall, within available
appropriations, develop and administer a pilot program to evaluate the
use of independent verification programs administered by independent
third-party entities to assess the adherence of artificial intelligence
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models to standards reflecting best practices for the prevention of
personal injury, property damage, data privacy harms and other harms.
The pilot program shall terminate on March 31, 2031.
(c) An independent third -party entity seeking to participate in the
pilot program as an independent verification organization shall submit
an application to the Department of Consumer Protection in a form and
manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection. Each
application shall include:
(1) A description of the scope of the applicant independent third -
party entity's independent verification program, including, but not
limited to, a description of the harms to be prevented or mitigated and
the risks against which such applicant intends to verify that artificial
intelligence models implement mitigation measures sufficient to
achieve acceptable levels of risk;
(2) For each risk described pursuant to subdivision (1) of this
subsection, (A) a proposed definition of the acceptable levels of risk, (B)
metrics that are measurable and can be used to determine whether the
acceptable levels of risk defined by the applic ant independent third -
party entity produce beneficial outcomes, (C) target levels for such
metrics, including, but not limited to, the data sources upon which such
target levels are based and methods for measurement, and (D) a
description of the evaluation and reporting protocol that will be used to
determine whether verified artificial intelligence models meet the
outcome metrics on an ongoing basis, including, but not limited to, a
description of how, where appropriate, the applicant independent
third-party entity's methodologies, metrics, benchmarks and
verification processes align with relevant guidance, standards and
frameworks developed by federal and state authorities, such as the
National Institute of Standards and Technology, and international
organizations, such as the International Organization for
Standardization or the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers;
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(3) A detailed explanation of the applicant independent third -party
entity's evaluation and verification processes for such entity's
independent verification program, including, but not limited to, how
such entity determines whether a person participating in an artificial
intelligence model is using industry best practices;
(4) The applicant independent third -party entity's (A) technical,
governance and audit methodologies for such entity's independent
verification program, (B) ongoing monitoring, reassessment and
remediation procedures for such program, including, but not limited to,
such entity's (i) corrective action procedures for such program, and (ii)
procedures for suspension, revocation or verification of good standing,
as applicable, (C) policies to ensure independence and transparency and
to avoid conflicts of interest, and (D) governance structure;
(5) The qualifications of the applicant independent third -party
entity's personnel who are involved in such entity's independent
verification program; and
(6) Any additional information the commissioner requires for the
purposes of this section.
(d) The Department of Consumer Protection shall approve not more
than five independent verification organizations to participate in the
pilot program. Each independent verification organization shall:
(1) Establish and maintain (A) minimum verification and auditing
standards for persons seeking verification from such independent
verification organization's independent verification program for
artificial intelligence models, and (B) procedures for verifi cation
suspension or revocation for persons participating in such program;
(2) Share data with, and submit an annual report to, the department,
in a form and manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer
Protection;
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(3) Require each person participating in such independent
verification organization's independent verification program to
participate in such program in a manner that is transparent to the public;
and
(4) Establish procedures for reassessment and, if necessary,
suspension of verification when a person participating in such program
makes a material change to a verified artificial intelligence model,
including, but not limited to, a material change to the training data,
deployment context or intended use of the verified artificial intelligence
model.
(e) (1) Evidence of verification or good standing provided by an
independent verification organization shall be admissible solely in a
civil action brought by a private party asserting claims for personal
injury or property damage caused by an artificial i ntelligence model,
and only to the extent such action relates to a specific harm or risk within
such verification's state -approved scope. Such evidence shall not be
admissible in any civil or administrative enforcement action brought by
the Attorney Genera l or any state agency, nor shall it give rise to any
presumption, inference or defense in any such action.
(2) The provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection shall not apply
to any person whose artificial intelligence model has been verified by an
independent verification organization's independent verification
program if such person:
(A) Acted in a wilful, wanton or reckless manner;
(B) Materially misrepresented information to the independent
verification organization; or
(C) Failed to implement any corrective action required by the
independent verification organization as part of such organization's
independent verification program.
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(f) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may suspend or
revoke an independent verification organization's approval to
participate in the pilot program if the commissioner determines, in the
commissioner's discretion, that:
(1) Such independent verification organization's verification process
is ineffective or misleading, including, but not limited to, because such
organization has failed to verify against the metrics, target levels or
specific harms or risks within the scope of such organization's
independent verification program;
(2) Such independent verification organization has failed to adhere to
any conditions or requirements established under this section;
(3) Such independent verification organization is not an independent
third-party entity;
(4) An artificial intelligence model verified by such independent
verification organization's independent verification program has
caused the type of harm or risk that such program purported to prevent,
mitigate or assess, and the occurrence of such harm o r manifestation of
such risk reflects a material deficiency in such program's methodologies,
standards or verification processes; or
(5) Continued participation by such independent verification
organization in the pilot program would not be in the public interest.
(g) (1) Not later than December 31, 2028, the Department of
Consumer Protection shall, in consultation with the Institute for
Municipal and Regional Policy at The University of Connecticut,
evaluate the pilot program and recommend legislation based on such
evaluation, including, but not limited to, legislation to modify or extend
the pilot program. The evaluation shall:
(A) Be designed to assess the performance and impact of the pilot
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program, including, but not limited to, the extent to which the pilot
program advanced its purposes as set forth in this section; and
(B) Include, but need not be limited to, (i) a landscape analysis of
legislation, laws and executive actions of other states that similarly seek
to recognize independent third -party entities to verify the safety of
artificial intelligence, and (ii) recommended legislation to establish
reciprocity between this state and other states, where appropriate and
advantageous.
(2) The Institute for Municipal and Regional Policy at The University
of Connecticut shall develop appropriate evaluation criteria and
methodologies for the evaluation performed pursuant to subdivision (1)
of this subsection, which criteria and methodologi es may take into
account:
(A) The structure, requirements and implementation of the pilot
program;
(B) Whether the pilot program effectively met its goals, including, but
not limited to, (i) its target harm mitigation or prevention levels, (ii) the
metrics for the pilot program, and (iii) the target levels for such metrics;
(C) The extent to which industry participated in the pilot program;
(D) The impact of the pilot program on innovation and economic
growth;
(E) The effectiveness of the verification standards for participation in
the pilot program; and
(F) Whether the pilot program should be continued, expanded,
modified or established as a permanent program, and, if such pilot
program should be continued or established as a permanent program,
(i) which state agency should administer such program, and (i i) what
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information should be reported to such state agency to ensure that such
program is effective.
(h) Not later than January 31, 2029, the Institute for Municipal and
Regional Policy at The University of Connecticut shall submit a report
to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having
cognizance of matters relating to consumer protection , in accordance
with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general statutes. Such report
shall include, but need not be limited to, the results of the evaluation
performed pursuant to subsection (g) of this section.
Sec. 48. Section 21a-8c of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes,
as amended by section 13 of public act 26 -8, is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) There shall be a State -Wide Cannabis, Hemp and Controlled
Substances Enforcement Board consisting of the Attorney General, the
Chief State's Attorney, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, the
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection , the
Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services , [and] the
Commissioner of Revenue Services and the executive director of the
Social Equity Council, or their designees.
(b) The board shall convene quarterly to (1) identify areas of need and
enforcement opportunities concerning illegal cannabis sales,
intoxicating hemp product sales and controlled substance sales, and (2)
examine developments in national trends and best practices concerning
cannabis, hemp and controlled substance enforcement.
(c) [The quarterly meetings of the board, and all documents related
to such meetings, shall not be available to the public or subject to
inspection or disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, as
defined in section 1 -200.] Any portion of the quarterly meetings of the
board during which discussion of identified areas of need and
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enforcement opportunities concerning illegal cannabis and controlled
substance sales occurs may be held in executive session. No records
related to such executive session shall be available to the public or
subject to inspection or disclosure under the Fre edom of Information
Act, as defined in section 1 -200. Nothing in this subsection shall be
construed to preclude the board from convening in executive session for
any other purpose permitted under subdivision (6) of section 1-200.
Sec. 49. Subdivision (29) of section 21a-240 of the general statutes, as
amended by section 16 of public act 26-8, is repealed and the following
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(29) "Cannabis" (A) means all parts of any plant or species of the
genus cannabis, or any infra specific taxon thereof, whether growing or
not; (B) includes (i) every resin extracted from any part of such plant,
including, but not limited to, every resin extracted from (I) the mature
stalks of such plant, (II) the fiber produced from the mature stalks of
such plant, or (III) the oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, (ii)
every other compound, manu facture, salt, derivative, mixture or
preparation of such plant or its resin, and (iii) every (I) high-THC hemp
product, (II) manufactured cannabinoid, or (III) cannabinol or
cannabidiol and chemical compounds which are similar to cannabinol
or cannabidiol in chemical structure or which are similar thereto in
physiological effect, which are controlled substances under this chapter,
except cannabidiol derived from hemp, as defined in section 22 -61l, as
amended by [this act] public act 26-8 and this act, that is not a high-THC
hemp product; and (C) does not include (i) the mature stalks of such
plant, (ii) the fiber produced from the mature stalks of such plant, (ii i)
the oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, (iv) any other
compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the
mature stalks of such plant, (v) the seeds of such plant, (vi) hemp, as
defined in section 22 -61l, as amended by [this act] public act 26 -8 and
this act, (I) with a total THC concentration of not more than three-tenths
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per cent on a dry -weight basis, and (II) that is not a high -THC hemp
product, (vii) [cannabinol, cannabigerol, cannabichromene or any other
minor cannabinoid derived from hemp, (viii) ] any substance approved
by the federal Food and Drug Administration or successor agency as a
drug and reclassified in any schedule of controlled substances or
unscheduled by the federal Drug Enforcement Administration or
successor agency which is included in the same schedule designated by
the federal Drug Enforcement Administ ration or successor agency, or
[(ix)] (viii) any infused beverage, as defined in section 21a -425, as
amended by [this act] public act 26-8.
Sec. 50. Section 21a -420d of the 2026 supplement to the general
statutes, as amended by section 54 of public act 26-8, is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) There is established a Social Equity Council, which shall be within
the Department of Economic and Community Development for
administrative purposes only.
(b) The Social Equity Council shall consist of seventeen members as
follows:
(1) One appointed by the speaker of the House of Representatives,
who has a professional background of not less than five years working
in the field of either social justice or civil rights;
(2) One appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate, who
has a professional background of not less than five years working in the
field of either social justice or civil rights;
(3) One appointed by the majority leader of the House of
Representatives, who has a professional background of not less than five
years working in the field of economic development to help minority -
owned businesses;
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(4) One appointed by the majority leader of the Senate, who has a
professional background of not less than five years in providing access
to capital to minorities, as defined in section 32-9n;
(5) One appointed by the minority leader of the House of
Representatives, who is from a community that has been
disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and enforcement;
(6) One appointed by the minority leader of the Senate, who has a
professional background of not less than five years in providing access
to capital to minorities, as defined in section 32-9n;
(7) Two appointed by the chairperson of the Black and Puerto Rican
Caucus of the General Assembly, one of whom shall be designated by
the chairperson of the Black Caucus of the General Assembly and one of
whom shall be designated by the chairperson of the Puer to Rican and
Latino Caucus of the General Assembly;
(8) Five appointed by the Governor, one who is from a community
that has been disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and
enforcement, one who has a professional background of not less than
five years working in the field of economic development and one who
is an executive branch official focused on workforce development;
(9) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection, or the commissioner's
designee;
(10) The Commissioner of Economic and Community Development,
or the commissioner's designee;
(11) The State Treasurer, or the State Treasurer's designee; and
(12) The Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management, or the
secretary's designee.
(c) (1) In making the appointments in subsection (b) of this section,
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the appointing authority shall use best efforts to make appointments
that reflect the racial, gender and geographic diversity of the population
of the state.
(2) Members appointed by the Governor shall serve a term of four
years from the time of appointment and members appointed by any
other appointing authority shall serve a term of three years from the
time of appointment. The appointing authority shall fill any vacancy for
the unexpired term.
(3) (A) The Governor shall appoint an interim executive director to
operationalize and support the Social Equity Council until,
notwithstanding the provisions of section 4 -9a, the council appoints an
executive director. Subject to the provisions of chapter 67, and within
available appropriations, the council may thereafter appoint an
executive director and such other employees as may be necessary for the
discharge of the duties of the council.
(B) Not later than July 1, 2024, the council shall adopt bylaws
specifying which duties are retained by the members of the council and
which duties are delegated to the executive director.
(C) The council may, by a simple majority vote of the members of the
council, take any formal personnel action concerning the executive
director for any reason.
(D) In addition to the council's authority under subparagraph (C) of
this subdivision, if a final review board consisting of the chairperson
and the members of the council appointed under subdivisions (1), (2),
(5) and (6) of subsection (b) of this section det ermines, by a simple
majority vote of the members of the final review board, that removing
the executive director is in the best interest of serving the council's
mission, such final review board shall issue a letter to the council
recommending that the council remove the executive director.
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(4) The Governor shall appoint the chairperson of the council from
among the members of the council. The chairperson shall directly
supervise, establish annual goals for and conduct an annual
performance review of the executive director.
(5) The chairperson and executive director shall jointly develop, and
the council shall review and approve, (A) allocations of moneys in the
social equity and innovation account established under section 21a-420f,
for the purposes that the council determines u nder subsection (a) of
section 21a-420f, further the principles of equity, and (B) any plans for
expenditures to provide (i) access to capital for businesses, (ii) technical
assistance for the start -up and operation of a business, (iii) funding for
workforce education, (iv) funding for community investments, and (v)
funding for investments in disproportionately impacted areas.
(d) A majority of the members of the Social Equity Council shall
constitute a quorum for the transaction of any business. The members
of the council shall serve without compensation, but shall, within
available appropriations, be reimbursed for expenses necess arily
incurred in the performance of their duties. Any member who fails to
attend three consecutive meetings, or who fails to attend fifty per cent
of all meetings held during any calendar year, may be removed from
office by a simple majority vote of t he members of the council. The
appointing authority shall fill the vacancy for the unexpired term of any
member who is removed from office under this subsection, and shall
use best efforts to ensure such appointment reflects the racial, gender
and geographic diversity of the population of the state.
(e) The Social Equity Council may (1) request, and shall receive, from
any state agency such information and assistance as the council may
require to carry out its duties, (2) use such funds as may be available
from federal, state or other sources to carry out its duties, (3) enter into
contracts or agreements to carry out its duties, including, but not limited
to, contracts or agreements with Connecticut Innovations, Incorporated,
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constituent units of the state system of higher education, regional
workforce development boards and community development financial
institutions, (4) utilize such voluntary and uncompensated services of
private individuals, state or federal agencies and organizations as may,
from time to time, be offered and needed to carry out its duties, (5)
accept any gift, donation or bequest to carry out its duties, (6) conduct
such investigations as the council may deem necessary to carry out its
duties, provided suc h investigations concern matters, complaints or
concerns that (A) are brought before the council by individuals who
meet the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision
(51) of section 21a-420, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, and (B)
relate to the protection, enforcement or advancement of equity under
this chapter, (7) hold public hearings, (8) establish such standing
committees, as necessary, to carry out its duties, and (9) adopt
regulations, in accordance with the provision s of chapter 54, as the
council may deem necessary to carry out its duties.
(f) The Social Equity Council shall promote and encourage full
participation in the cannabis industry by persons from communities
that have been disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and
enforcement.
(g) Not later than forty-five days after June 22, 2021, or at a later date
determined by the Social Equity Council, the council shall establish
criteria for proposals to conduct a study under this section and the
Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management shall post on the State
Contracting Portal a request for proposals to conduct a study, and shall
select an independent third party to conduct such study and provide
detailed findings of fact regarding the following matters in the state or
other matters determined by the council:
(1) Historical and present -day social, economic and familial
consequences of cannabis prohibition, the criminalization and
stigmatization of cannabis use and related public policies;
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(2) Historical and present -day structures, patterns, causes and
consequences of intentional and unintentional racial discrimination and
racial disparities in the development, application and enforcement of
cannabis prohibition and related public policies;
(3) Foreseeable long-term social, economic and familial consequences
of unremedied past racial discrimination and disparities arising from
past and continued cannabis prohibition, stigmatization and
criminalization;
(4) Existing patterns of racial discrimination and racial disparities in
access to entrepreneurship, employment and other economic benefits
arising in the lawful palliative use cannabis sector as established
pursuant to chapter 420f; and
(5) Any other matters that the council deems relevant and feasible for
study for the purpose of making reasonable and practical
recommendations for the establishment of an equitable and lawful
adult-use cannabis business sector in this state.
(h) Not later than January 1, 2022, the Social Equity Council shall,
taking into account the results of the study conducted in accordance
with subsection (g) of this section, make written recommendations, in
accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a, to the Governor and the
joint standing committees of the General Assembly having cognizance
of matters relating to finance, revenue and bonding, consumer
protection and the judiciary regarding legislation to implement the
provisions of this section. The c ouncil shall make recommendations
regarding:
(1) Creating programs to ensure that individuals from communities
that have been disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and
enforcement are provided equal access to licenses for cannabis
establishments;
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(2) Specifying additional qualifications for social equity applicants;
(3) Providing for expedited or priority license processing for each
license as a retailer, hybrid retailer, cultivator, micro-cultivator, product
manufacturer, food and beverage manufacturer, product packager,
transporter and delivery service license for social equity applicants;
(4) Establishing minimum criteria for any cannabis establishment
licensed on or after January 1, 2022, to comply with an approved
workforce development plan to reinvest or provide employment and
training opportunities for individuals in disproportionately impa cted
areas;
(5) Establishing criteria for a social equity plan for any cannabis
establishment licensed on or after January 1, 2022, to further the
principles of equity;
(6) Recruiting individuals from communities that have been
disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and enforcement to
enroll in the workforce training program established pursuant to section
21a-421g;
(7) Potential uses for revenue generated under RERACA to further
equity;
(8) Encouraging participation of investors, cannabis establishments
and entrepreneurs in the cannabis business accelerator program
established pursuant to section 21a-421f;
(9) Establishing a process to best ensure that social equity applicants
have access to the capital and training needed to own and operate a
cannabis establishment; and
(10) Developing a vendor list of women-owned and minority-owned
businesses that cannabis establishments may contract with for necessary
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services, including, but not limited to, office supplies, information
technology infrastructure and cleaning services.
(i) (1) Not later than August 1, 2021, and annually thereafter until July
31, 2023, the Social Equity Council shall use the most recent five -year
United States Census Bureau American Community Survey estimates
or any successor data to determine one or more United States census
tracts in the state that are a disproportionately impacted area and shall
publish a list of such tracts on the council's Internet web site.
(2) Not later than August 1, 2023, the council shall use poverty rate
data from the most recent five -year United States Census Bureau
American Community Survey estimates, population data from the most
recent decennial census and conviction information from dat abases
managed by the Department of Emergency Services and Public
Protection to identify all United States census tracts in the state that are
disproportionately impacted areas and shall publish a list of such tracts
on the council's Internet web site. In identifying which census tracts in
this state are disproportionately impacted areas and preparing such list,
the council shall:
(A) Not deem any census tract with a poverty rate that is less than the
state-wide poverty rate to be a disproportionately impacted area;
(B) After eliminating the census tracts described in subparagraph (A)
of this subdivision, rank the remaining census tracts in order from the
census tract with the greatest historical conviction rate for drug -related
offenses to the census tract with the lowest historical conviction rate for
drug-related offenses; and
(C) Include census tracts in the order of rank described in
subparagraph (B) of this subdivision until including the next census
tract would cause the total population of all included census tracts to
exceed twenty-five per cent of the state's population.
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(j) After developing criteria for workforce development plans as
described in subdivision (4) of subsection (h) of this section, the Social
Equity Council shall review and approve or deny in writing any such
plan submitted by an applicant for a final license. If the Social Equity
Council does not approve a workforce development plan for a cannabis
establishment on or before July 1, 2025, the cannabis establishment shall
submit a workforce development plan to the council not later than
October 1, 2025, or si xty days prior to the next renewal date for such
cannabis establishment's license, whichever is earlier. Not later than
sixty days after the cannabis establishment submits the workforce
development plan to the council, the council shall send notice to the
cannabis establishment disclosing whether such workforce
development plan has been approved, rejected or requires modification.
(k) (1) The Social Equity Council shall develop criteria for evaluating
the ownership and control of any equity joint venture created under
section 21a-420j, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, 21a-420m, as
amended by [this act] public act 26-8, 21a-420u, as amended by [this act]
public act 26-8, 21a-420aa, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, 21a-
420bb, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, or 21a-420cc, as amended
by [this act] public act 26 -8, and shall review and approve or deny in
writing such equity joint venture prior to such equity joint venture being
licensed under section 21a-420j, as amended by [this act] public act 26-
8, 21a -420m, as amended by [this act ] public act 26 -8, 21a -420u, as
amended by [this act] public act 26 -8, 21a-420aa, as amended by [this
act] public act 26-8, 21a-420bb, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8,
or 21a-420cc, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8. The council shall
not approve any equity joint venture applicant which shares with an
equity joint venture any individual owner who meets the criteria
established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of section
21a-420, as amended by [this act ] public act 26 -8, other than an
individual owner in their capacity as a backer licensed under section
21a-420o.
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(2) No contract entered into or renewed on or after the effective date
of this section shall provide that any change may be made in the
ownership or control of any equity joint venture created under section
21a-420j, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, 21a-420m, as amended
by [this act] public act 26-8, 21a-420u, as amended by [this act] public act
26-8, 21a-420aa, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, 21a-420bb, as
amended by [this act] public act 26-8, or 21a-420cc, as amended by [this
act] public act 26-8, that would cause such equity joint venture not to be
controlled, and at least fifty per cent owned, by an individual who meets
the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51)
of section 21a-420, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, unless:
(A) At least five years have elapsed since a final license was issued to
the equity joint venture;
(B) At least ninety days before the proposed effective date of such
change, the equity joint venture (i) submits a written notice to the
council, in a form and manner prescribed by the council, disclosing that
the equity joint venture intends to make such change, and (ii) sends a
written notice to t he individual who meets the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of section 21a -420, as
amended by [this act] public act 26 -8, disclosing that such individual
may, not later than sixty days before the proposed effective date of such
change, submit a written request to the council, in a form and manner
prescribed by the council, that the council perform [an optional
nonfinancial] a review of such change pursuant to subparagraph (C) of
this subdivision;
(C) If the council receives a written request submitted under
subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision, the council, not later than
[thirty] fifteen days before the proposed effective date of such change,
(i) completes the [optional nonfinancial] review to determine (I) whether
the individual described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision has
retained legal counsel to advise such individual regarding such change,
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understands the structure and implications of such change, understands
the financial terms of such change, has engaged with such individual's
business partners, if any, to ensure that such change is appropriate and
consents to such change free of any coercion or undue pressure, and (II)
whether such change complies with the organizational documents of
the equity joint venture, and (ii) sends a written notice to the individual
described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision and the equity joint
venture, in a form and manner prescribed by the council, disclosing the
results of such [optional nonfinancial] review; and
(D) The person acquiring ownership or control of the equity joint
venture from the individual described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this
subdivision has paid to the council, in a form and manner prescribed by
the council, (i) a nonrefundable transaction processing fee in the amount
of eight thousand dollars, which the council shall deposit in the social
equity and innovation account established under section 21a -420f, and
(ii) the outstanding balance of all loans issued to the equity joint venture,
or the individual described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision,
as part of the revolving loan program established pursuant to section
21a-421i.
[(3) Nothing in subdivision (2) of this subsection shall be construed
to authorize the council to delay or reject any change described in said
subdivision due to the results of an optional nonfinancial review
performed pursuant to subparagraph (C) of said s ubdivision. Any
change made in violation of subdivision (2) of this subsection shall be
void and of no effect.]
(3) If the council concludes at any point during or upon completion
of a review performed under subparagraph (C) of subdivision (2) of this
subsection that there was coercion or undue pressure, or that the
proposed change does not comply with the organizational documents
of the equity joint venture, the council may refer s uch equity joint
venture to the department for administrative enforcement action, which
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may result in a fine of not more than ten million dollars or action against
the equity joint venture's license.
(4) (A) No individual who meets the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of section 21a -420, as
amended by public act 26-8, shall enter into any agreement, including,
but not limited to, any consulting agreement or similar contractual
arrangement, on or after November 1, 2026, if such agreement:
(i) Transfers or delegates any operational control of the cannabis
establishment to a person who does not meet the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of section 21a -420, as
amended by public act 26-8;
(ii) Grants any authority or ability to control, direct, determine or
materially influence, whether directly or indirectly, decisions
concerning the cannabis establishment, including, but not limited to,
decisions concerning hiring, pricing, purchasing, in ventory
management or day -to-day operations, regardless of whether such
individual retains nominal approval rights;
(iii) Results in such individual serving as a nominal or passive owner
of the cannabis establishment; or
(iv) Impairs such individual's (I) final decision-making authority over
the management, policies and operations of the cannabis establishment,
or (II) authority to hire, terminate and supervise the cannabis
establishment's executive management and key personnel.
(B) For the purposes of subparagraph (A) of this subdivision, the
provision of personnel, staffing, operational systems or vendor
relationships by a person who does not meet the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of secti on 21a -420, as
amended by public act 26 -8, shall be considered evidence of control if
such provision results in operational dependence by the individual who
meets the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of
subdivision (51) of section 21a -420, as amended by public act 26 -8, on
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such person, or such individual does not have authority to override
decisions made by such person.
(C) Nothing in subparagraph (A) or (B) of this subdivision shall be
construed to prohibit an individual who meets the criteria established
in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of section 21a -420, as
amended by public act 26-8, from:
(i) Engaging any third -party vendor or consultant to provide bona
fide advisory, technical or support services, provided such services do
not confer any control described in subparagraph (A) of this
subdivision; or
(ii) Delegating any operational or management functions, provided
such individual retains final decision-making authority.
(5) The council shall not approve, and shall require correction of, any
equity joint venture, or any transfer, assignment, sale or acquisition of
an ownership or financial interest in a cannabis establishment, that
violates the provisions of this subsection.
(6) Each cannabis establishment approved by the council shall:
(A) Not later than January 15, 2027, and annually thereafter, submit
to the council, in a form and manner prescribed by the council, a signed
statement certifying that (i) no material change occurred in the
ownership, control or financing arrangements of s uch cannabis
establishment during the preceding calendar year, or (ii) a material
change occurred in the ownership, control or financing arrangements of
such cannabis establishment during the preceding calendar year and
setting forth the nature of such material change; and
(B) Maintain records sufficient to demonstrate ongoing compliance
with the ownership and control requirements of this chapter for a period
of at least five years.
(l) The Social Equity Council shall, upon receipt of funds from
producers in accordance with subdivision (5) of subsection (b) of section
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21a-420l, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8, develop a program to
assist social equity applicants to open not more than two micro -
cultivator establishment businesses in total. Producers shall provide
mentorship to such social equity applicants. The council shall, with the
department, determine a sy stem to select social equity applicants to
participate in such program without participating in a lottery or request
for proposals.
(m) (1) The Social Equity Council shall review and either approve or
deny, in writing, any social equity plan submitted by a cannabis
establishment as part of the cannabis establishment's final license
application. The council shall approve or deny such social equ ity plan
not later than thirty days after such social equity plan is submitted to
the council. If the council denies any such social equity plan, the
applicant may revise and resubmit such social equity plan without
prejudice.
(2) (A) Each licensed cannabis establishment shall (i) maintain an
active social equity plan at all times while such cannabis establishment
is in operation, and (ii) not later than March first, annually, submit to
the council a report disclosing the impact such social equity plan had on
the disproportionately impacted area in which such cannabis
establishment is located during the preceding calendar year.
(B) The council shall review each report submitted pursuant to
subparagraph (A)(ii) of this subdivision and may, not later than sixty
days after completing such review, request that the licensed cannabis
establishment that submitted such report revise such can nabis
establishment's social equity plan to ensure that such social equity plan
furthers the principles of equity.
(3) Not later than July 1, 2024, the council shall update the criteria for
social equity plans described in subdivision (5) of subsection (h) of this
section to include a specific, points-based rubric to evaluate social equity
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plans.
(n) The Social Equity Council shall approve the amounts, grantees
and purposes of any grants made by the council from the social equity
and innovation account or the Cannabis Social Equity and Innovation
Fund, established under section 21a-420f, and any contract executed by
and between the council and a grant maker shall require that the
amounts, grantees and purposes of any subgrants made by such grant
maker shall be approved by the council.
(o) Not later than the first days of January, April, July and October
for the preceding calendar quarter , the Social Equity Council shall
prepare and submit a quarterly report, in accordance with the
provisions of section 11-4a, to the Governor, the speaker of the House of
Representatives, the president pro tempore of the Senate, the majority
leader of the House of Representatives, the majority leader of the Senate,
the minority leader of the House of Representatives, the minority leader
of the Senate, the joint standing committees of the General Assembly
having cognizance of matters relating to appropriations and consumer
protection and the chairperson of the Black and Puerto Rican Caucus of
the General Assembly. The report shall include, but need not be limited
to:
(1) The fiscal -year-to-date expenditures of the council, which
expenditures shall disclose, at a minimum: (A) All expenditures made
for personal services and the fringe benefit costs associated therewith;
(B) all expenditures made for consultants retained for the purpose of
reviewing applications for social equity applicant status; (C) all
expenditures made to provide businesses with access to capital and the
number of businesses that received access to such capital; (D) all
expenditures made to provide tec hnical assistance for the start -up and
operation of businesses and the number of businesses that received such
assistance; (E) all expenditures made to fund workforce education, the
number of persons served by the workforce education programs
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supported by such expenditures and the number of persons successfully
placed in relevant professional roles after completing such workforce
education programs; (F) all expenditures made to fund community
investment grants, the amounts, grantees and purpose s of such grants
and, if any of such grants were made to a grant maker, the amounts,
grantees and purposes of any subgrants made by such grant maker; (G)
all expenditures made for promotional or branding items and which
promotional or branding items were p urchased; (H) all expenditures
made for advertising or marketing campaigns; (I) all expenditures made
to advertising or marketing firms; (J) all expenditures made for
sponsorships; (K) all expenditures made for other community outreach;
(L) all expenditures made for travel; and (M) all other expenditures not
described in subparagraphs (A) to (L), inclusive, of this subdivision; and
(2) The status of the council's performance of the council's
responsibilities in the licensing process under RERACA, including, but
not limited to: (A) The number of applications for social equity applicant
status, social equity plans and workforce development plans pending
before the council, categorized into the number of applications, social
equity plans and workforce development plans pending before the
council for (i) less than thirty days, (ii) at least thirty days but less than
sixty days, (iii) at l east sixty days but less than ninety days, and (iv) at
least ninety days; (B) the number of applications for social equity
applicant status, social equity plans and workforce development plans
approved during the then current fiscal year, broken down by li cense
type; and (C) the number of applications for social equity applicant
status, social equity plans and workforce development plans denied
during the then current fiscal year, broken down by license type.
(p) Not later than October 1, 2025, the council shall develop and
submit a strategic plan to the Governor and the joint standing
committees of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
relating to appropriations and consumer protection. The strategic p lan
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shall include a framework that outlines the council's goals, planned
actions and priorities for the three -year period beginning October 1,
2025, and ending September 30, 2028.
(q) Not later than October 1, 2025, the council shall develop and adopt
an ethical code of conduct for council members and staff.
(r) Not later than January 1, 2026, and annually thereafter, the
members of the council and council staff shall complete an ethics
training course focusing on disproportionately impacted areas and the
cannabis industry.
(s) The council shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the
provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of subsection (k)
of this section and subsection (a) of section 21a -420g, as amended by
[this act] public act 26-8. Notwithstanding the requirements of sections
4-168 to 4 -172, inclusive, in order to implement the provisions of
subsection (k) of this section and subsection (a) of section 21a -420g, as
amended by [this act] public act 26-8, prior to adopting such regulations
the council shall, not later than October 1, 2026, issue policies and
procedures to implement the provisions of subsection (k) of this section
and subsection (a) of section 21a -420g, as amended by [this act] public
act 26-8, that shall have the force and effect of law. The council shall post
all policies and procedures on its Internet web site, and submit such
policies and procedures to the Secretary of the State for posting on the
eRegulations System, at least fifteen days prior to the effective date o f
any policy or procedure. Any such policy or procedure shall no longer
be effective upon the earlier of either the adoption of such policy or
procedure as a final regulation under section 4-172 or October 1, 2027, if
such regulations have not been submitt ed to the legislative regulation
review committee for consideration under section 4 -170. Any violation
of such policies and procedures or any violation of such regulations
related to any change in ownership or control may be referred by the
council to the Department of Consumer Protection for administrative
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enforcement action, which may result in a fine of not more than ten
million dollars or action against the cannabis establishment's license.
Sec. 51. Subsections (e) to (s), inclusive, of section 21a-420d of the 2026
supplement to the general statutes, as amended by section 54 of public
act 26 -8, and section 50 of this act, are repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(e) The Social Equity Council may (1) request, and shall receive, from
any state agency such information and assistance as the council may
require to carry out its duties, (2) use such funds as may be available
from federal, state or other sources to carry out its duties, (3) enter into
contracts or agreements to carry out its duties, including, but not limited
to, contracts or agreements with Connecticut Innovations, Incorporated,
constituent units of the state system of higher education, regional
workforce development boards and community development financial
institutions, (4) utilize such voluntary and uncompensated services of
private individuals, state or federal agencies and organizations as may,
from time to time, be offered and needed to carry out i ts duties, (5)
accept any gift, donation or bequest to carry out its duties, (6) conduct
such investigations as the council may deem necessary to carry out its
duties, provided such investigations concern matters, complaints or
concerns that (A) are brough t before the council by individuals who
meet the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision
[(51)] (54) of section 21a -420, as amended by public act 26 -8, and (B)
relate to the protection, enforcement or advancement of equity under
this chapter, (7) hold public hearings, (8) establish such standing
committees, as necessary, to carry out its duties, and (9) adopt
regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, as the
council may deem necessary to carry out its duties.
(f) The Social Equity Council shall promote and encourage full
participation in the cannabis industry by persons from communities
that have been disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and
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enforcement.
(g) Not later than forty-five days after June 22, 2021, or at a later date
determined by the Social Equity Council, the council shall establish
criteria for proposals to conduct a study under this section and the
Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management shall post on the State
Contracting Portal a request for proposals to conduct a study, and shall
select an independent third party to conduct such study and provide
detailed findings of fact regarding the following matters in the state or
other matters determined by the council:
(1) Historical and present -day social, economic and familial
consequences of cannabis prohibition, the criminalization and
stigmatization of cannabis use and related public policies;
(2) Historical and present -day structures, patterns, causes and
consequences of intentional and unintentional racial discrimination and
racial disparities in the development, application and enforcement of
cannabis prohibition and related public policies;
(3) Foreseeable long-term social, economic and familial consequences
of unremedied past racial discrimination and disparities arising from
past and continued cannabis prohibition, stigmatization and
criminalization;
(4) Existing patterns of racial discrimination and racial disparities in
access to entrepreneurship, employment and other economic benefits
arising in the lawful palliative use cannabis sector as established
pursuant to chapter 420f; and
(5) Any other matters that the council deems relevant and feasible for
study for the purpose of making reasonable and practical
recommendations for the establishment of an equitable and lawful
adult-use cannabis business sector in this state.
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(h) Not later than January 1, 2022, the Social Equity Council shall,
taking into account the results of the study conducted in accordance
with subsection (g) of this section, make written recommendations, in
accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a, to the Governor and the
joint standing committees of the General Assembly having cognizance
of matters relating to finance, revenue and bonding, consumer
protection and the judiciary regarding legislation to implement the
provisions of this section. The c ouncil shall make recommendations
regarding:
(1) Creating programs to ensure that individuals from communities
that have been disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and
enforcement are provided equal access to licenses for cannabis
establishments;
(2) Specifying additional qualifications for social equity applicants;
(3) Providing for expedited or priority license processing for each
license as a retailer, hybrid retailer, cultivator, micro-cultivator, product
manufacturer, food and beverage manufacturer, product packager,
transporter and delivery service license for social equity applicants;
(4) Establishing minimum criteria for any cannabis establishment
licensed on or after January 1, 2022, to comply with an approved
workforce development plan to reinvest or provide employment and
training opportunities for individuals in disproportionately impa cted
areas;
(5) Establishing criteria for a social equity plan for any cannabis
establishment licensed on or after January 1, 2022, to further the
principles of equity;
(6) Recruiting individuals from communities that have been
disproportionately harmed by cannabis prohibition and enforcement to
enroll in the workforce training program established pursuant to section
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21a-421g;
(7) Potential uses for revenue generated under RERACA to further
equity;
(8) Encouraging participation of investors, cannabis establishments
and entrepreneurs in the cannabis business accelerator program
established pursuant to section 21a-421f;
(9) Establishing a process to best ensure that social equity applicants
have access to the capital and training needed to own and operate a
cannabis establishment; and
(10) Developing a vendor list of women-owned and minority-owned
businesses that cannabis establishments may contract with for necessary
services, including, but not limited to, office supplies, information
technology infrastructure and cleaning services.
(i) (1) Not later than August 1, 2021, and annually thereafter until July
31, 2023, the Social Equity Council shall use the most recent five -year
United States Census Bureau American Community Survey estimates
or any successor data to determine one or more United States census
tracts in the state that are a disproportionately impacted area and shall
publish a list of such tracts on the council's Internet web site.
(2) Not later than August 1, 2023, the council shall use poverty rate
data from the most recent five -year United States Census Bureau
American Community Survey estimates, population data from the most
recent decennial census and conviction information from dat abases
managed by the Department of Emergency Services and Public
Protection to identify all United States census tracts in the state that are
disproportionately impacted areas and shall publish a list of such tracts
on the council's Internet web site. In identifying which census tracts in
this state are disproportionately impacted areas and preparing such list,
the council shall:
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(A) Not deem any census tract with a poverty rate that is less than the
state-wide poverty rate to be a disproportionately impacted area;
(B) After eliminating the census tracts described in subparagraph (A)
of this subdivision, rank the remaining census tracts in order from the
census tract with the greatest historical conviction rate for drug -related
offenses to the census tract with the lowest historical conviction rate for
drug-related offenses; and
(C) Include census tracts in the order of rank described in
subparagraph (B) of this subdivision until including the next census
tract would cause the total population of all included census tracts to
exceed twenty-five per cent of the state's population.
(j) After developing criteria for workforce development plans as
described in subdivision (4) of subsection (h) of this section, the Social
Equity Council shall review and approve or deny in writing any such
plan submitted by an applicant for a final license. If the Social Equity
Council does not approve a workforce development plan for a cannabis
establishment on or before July 1, 2025, the cannabis establishment shall
submit a workforce development plan to the council not later than
October 1, 2025, or si xty days prior to the next renewal date for such
cannabis establishment's license, whichever is earlier. Not later than
sixty days after the cannabis establishment submits the workforce
development plan to the council, the council shall send notice to the
cannabis establishment disclosing whether such workforce
development plan has been approved, rejected or requires modification.
(k) (1) The Social Equity Council shall develop criteria for evaluating
the ownership and control of any equity joint venture created under
section 21a-420j, as amended by public act 26-8, 21a-420m, as amended
by public act 26-8, 21a-420u, as amended by public act 26-8, 21a-420aa,
as amended by public act 26-8, 21a-420bb, as amended by public act 26-
8, or 21a-420cc, as amended by public act 26 -8, and shall review and
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approve or deny in writing such equity joint venture prior to such equity
joint venture being licensed under section 21a -420j, as amended by
public act 26 -8, 21a-420m, as amended by public act 26 -8, 21a-420u, as
amended by public act 26-8, 21a-420aa, as amended by public act 26-8,
21a-420bb, as amended by public act 26-8 or 21a-420cc, as amended by
public act 26-8. The council shall not approve any equity joint venture
applicant which shares with an equity joint venture any individual
owner who meets the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B)
of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a -420, as amended by public act
26-8, other than an individual owner in their capacity as a backer
licensed under section 21a-420o.
(2) No contract entered into or renewed on or after the effective date
of this section shall provide that any change may be made in the
ownership or control of any equity joint venture created under section
21a-420j, as amended by public act 26 -8, 21a -420m, as amended by
public act 26-8, 21a-420u, as amended by public act 26-8, 21a-420aa, as
amended by public act 26-8, 21a-420bb, as amended by public act 26-8
or 21a-420cc, as amended by public act 26 -8, that would cause such
equity joint venture not to be controlled, and at least fifty per cent
owned, by an individual who meets the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a-420,
as amended by public act 26-8, unless:
(A) At least five years have elapsed since a final license was issued to
the equity joint venture;
(B) At least ninety days before the proposed effective date of such
change, the equity joint venture (i) submits a written notice to the
council, in a form and manner prescribed by the council, disclosing that
the equity joint venture intends to make such change, and (ii) sends a
written notice to the individual who meets the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a-420,
as amended by public act 26-8, disclosing that such individual may, not
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later than sixty days before the proposed effective date of such change,
submit a written request to the council, in a form and manner prescribed
by the council, that the council perform a review of such change
pursuant to subparagraph (C) of this subdivision;
(C) If the council receives a written request submitted under
subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision, the council, not later than
fifteen days before the proposed effective date of such change, (i)
completes the review to determine (I) whether the individual described
in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision has retained legal counsel to
advise such individual regarding such change, unde rstands the
structure and implications of such change, understands the financial
terms of such change, has engaged wi th such individual's business
partners, if any, to ensure that such change is appropriate and consents
to such change free of any coercion or undue pressure, and (II) whether
such change complies with the organizational documents of the equity
joint venture, and (ii) sends a written notice to the individual described
in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision and the equity joint venture,
in a form and manner prescribed by the council, disclosing the results
of such review; and
(D) The person acquiring ownership or control of the equity joint
venture from the individual described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this
subdivision has paid to the council, in a form and manner prescribed by
the council, (i) a nonrefundable transaction processing fee in the amount
of eight thousand dollars, which the council shall deposit in the social
equity and innovation account established under section 21a -420f, and
(ii) the outstanding balance of all loans issued to the equity joint venture,
or the individual described in subparagraph (B)(ii) of this subdivision,
as part of the revolving loan program established pursuant to section
21a-421i.
(3) If the council concludes at any point during or upon completion
of a review performed under subparagraph (C) of subdivision (2) of this
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subsection that there was coercion or undue pressure, or that the
proposed change does not comply with the organizational documents
of the equity joint venture, the council may refer such equity joint
venture to the department for administrative enforcement action, which
may result in a fine of not more than ten million dollars or action against
the equity joint venture's license.
(4) (A) No individual who meets the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a-420,
as amended by public act 26 -8, shall enter into any agreement,
including, but not limited to, any consulting agreement or similar
contractual arrangement, on or after November 1, 2026, if such
agreement:
(i) Transfers or delegates any operational control of the cannabis
establishment to a person who does not meet the criteria established in
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a-420,
as amended by public act 26-8;
(ii) Grants any authority or ability to control, direct, determine or
materially influence, whether directly or indirectly, decisions
concerning the cannabis establishment, including, but not limited to,
decisions concerning hiring, pricing, purchasing, in ventory
management or day -to-day operations, regardless of whether such
individual retains nominal approval rights;
(iii) Results in such individual serving as a nominal or passive owner
of the cannabis establishment; or
(iv) Impairs such individual's (I) final decision-making authority over
the management, policies and operations of the cannabis establishment,
or (II) authority to hire, terminate and supervise the cannabis
establishment's executive management and key personnel.
(B) For the purposes of subparagraph (A) of this subdivision, the
provision of personnel, staffing, operational systems or vendor
relationships by a person who does not meet the criteria established in
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subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a-420,
as amended by public act 26-8, shall be considered evidence of control
if such provision results in operational dependence by the individual
who meets the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of
subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a-420, as amended by public act 26-
8, on such person, or such individual does not have authority to override
decisions made by such person.
(C) Nothing in subparagraph (A) or (B) of this subdivision shall be
construed to prohibit an individual who meets the criteria established
in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision [(51)] (54) of section 21a -
420, as amended by public act 26-8, from:
(i) Engaging any third -party vendor or consultant to provide bona
fide advisory, technical or support services, provided such services do
not confer any control described in subparagraph (A) of this
subdivision; or
(ii) Delegating any operational or management functions, provided
such individual retains final decision-making authority.
(5) The council shall not approve, and shall require correction of, any
equity joint venture, or any transfer, assignment, sale or acquisition of
an ownership or financial interest in a cannabis establishment, that
violates the provisions of this subsection.
(6) Each cannabis establishment approved by the council shall:
(A) Not later than January 15, 2027, and annually thereafter, submit
to the council, in a form and manner prescribed by the council, a signed
statement certifying that (i) no material change occurred in the
ownership, control or financing arrangements of s uch cannabis
establishment during the preceding calendar year, or (ii) a material
change occurred in the ownership, control or financing arrangements of
such cannabis establishment during the preceding calendar year and
setting forth the nature of such material change; and
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(B) Maintain records sufficient to demonstrate ongoing compliance
with the ownership and control requirements of this chapter for a period
of at least five years.
(l) The Social Equity Council shall, upon receipt of funds from
producers in accordance with subdivision (5) of subsection (b) of section
21a-420l, as amended by public act 26 -8, develop a program to assist
social equity applicants to open not more than two micro -cultivator
establishment businesses in total. Producers shall provide mentorship
to such social equity applicants. The council shall, with the department,
determine a sy stem to select social equity applicants to participate in
such program without participating in a lottery or request for proposals.
(m) (1) The Social Equity Council shall review and either approve or
deny, in writing, any social equity plan submitted by a cannabis
establishment as part of the cannabis establishment's final license
application. The council shall approve or deny such social equ ity plan
not later than thirty days after such social equity plan is submitted to
the council. If the council denies any such social equity plan, the
applicant may revise and resubmit such social equity plan without
prejudice.
(2) (A) Each licensed cannabis establishment shall (i) maintain an
active social equity plan at all times while such cannabis establishment
is in operation, and (ii) not later than March first, annually, submit to
the council a report disclosing the impact such social equity plan had on
the disproportionately impacted area in which such cannabis
establishment is located during the preceding calendar year.
(B) The council shall review each report submitted pursuant to
subparagraph (A)(ii) of this subdivision and may, not later than sixty
days after completing such review, request that the licensed cannabis
establishment that submitted such report revise such can nabis
establishment's social equity plan to ensure that such social equity plan
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furthers the principles of equity.
(3) Not later than July 1, 2024, the council shall update the criteria for
social equity plans described in subdivision (5) of subsection (h) of this
section to include a specific, points-based rubric to evaluate social equity
plans.
(n) The Social Equity Council shall approve the amounts, grantees
and purposes of any grants made by the council from the social equity
and innovation account or the Cannabis Social Equity and Innovation
Fund, established under section 21a-420f, and any contract executed by
and between the council and a grant maker shall require that the
amounts, grantees and purposes of any subgrants made by such grant
maker shall be approved by the council.
(o) Not later than the first days of January, April, July and October
for the preceding calendar quarter , the Social Equity Council shall
prepare and submit a quarterly report, in accordance with the
provisions of section 11-4a, to the Governor, the speaker of the House of
Representatives, the president pro tempore of the Senate, the majority
leader of the House of Representatives, the majority leader of the Senate,
the minority leader of the House of Representatives, the minority leader
of the Senate, the joint standing committees of the General Assembly
having cognizance of matters relating to appropriations and consumer
protection and the chairperson of the Black and Puerto Rican Caucus of
the General Assembly. The report shall include, but need not be limited
to:
(1) The fiscal -year-to-date expenditures of the council, which
expenditures shall disclose, at a minimum: (A) All expenditures made
for personal services and the fringe benefit costs associated therewith;
(B) all expenditures made for consultants retained for the purpose of
reviewing applications for social equity applicant status; (C) all
expenditures made to provide businesses with access to capital and the
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number of businesses that received access to such capital; (D) all
expenditures made to provide technical assistance for the start -up and
operation of businesses and the number of businesses that received such
assistance; (E) all expenditures made to fund workforce education, the
number of persons served by the workforce education programs
supported by such expenditures and the number of persons successfully
placed in relevant professional roles after completing such workforce
education programs; (F) all ex penditures made to fund community
investment grants, the amounts, grantees and purposes of such grants
and, if any of such grants were made to a grant maker, the amounts,
grantees and purposes of any subgrants made by such grant maker; (G)
all expenditures made for promotional or branding items and which
promotional or branding items were purchased; (H) all expenditures
made for advertising or marketing campaigns; (I) all expenditures made
to advertising or marketing firms; (J) all expenditures made for
sponsorships; (K) all expenditures made for other community outreach;
(L) all expenditures made for travel; and (M) all other expenditures not
described in subparagraphs (A) to (L), inclusive, of this subdivision; and
(2) The status of the council's performance of the council's
responsibilities in the licensing process under RERACA, including, but
not limited to: (A) The number of applications for social equity applicant
status, social equity plans and workforce development plans pending
before the council, categorized into the number of applications, social
equity plans and workforce development plans pending before the
council for (i) less than thirty days, (ii) at least thirty days but less than
sixty days, (iii) at l east sixty days but less than ninety days, and (iv) at
least ninety days; (B) the number of applications for social equity
applicant status, social equity plans and workforce development plans
approved during the then current fiscal year, broken down by li cense
type; and (C) the number of applications for social equity applicant
status, social equity plans and workforce development plans denied
during the then current fiscal year, broken down by license type.
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(p) Not later than October 1, 2025, the council shall develop and
submit a strategic plan to the Governor and the joint standing
committees of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
relating to appropriations and consumer protection. The strategic p lan
shall include a framework that outlines the council's goals, planned
actions and priorities for the three -year period beginning October 1,
2025, and ending September 30, 2028.
(q) Not later than October 1, 2025, the council shall develop and adopt
an ethical code of conduct for council members and staff.
(r) Not later than January 1, 2026, and annually thereafter, the
members of the council and council staff shall complete an ethics
training course focusing on disproportionately impacted areas and the
cannabis industry.
(s) The council shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the
provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of subsection (k)
of this section and subsection (a) of section 21a -420g, as amended by
public act 26 -8. Notwithstanding the requirements of sections 4 -168 to
4-172, inclusive, in order to implement the provisions of subsection (k)
of this section and subsection (a) of section 21a -420g, as amended by
public act 26-8, prior to adopting such regulations the council shall, not
later than October 1, 2026, issue policies and procedures to implement
the provisions of subsection (k) of this section and subsection (a) of
section 21a-420g, as amended by public act 26-8, that shall have the force
and effect of law. The council shall post all policies and procedures on
its Internet web site, and submit such policies and procedures to the
Secretary of the State for posting on the eRegulations System, at least
fifteen days prior to the effective date of any policy or procedure. Any
such policy or procedure shall no longer be effective upon the earlier of
either the adoption of such policy or procedure as a final regulation
under section 4-172 or October 1, 2027, if such regulations have not been
submitted to the legislative regulation review committee for
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consideration under section 4 -170. Any violation of such policies and
procedures or any violation of such regulations related to any change in
ownership or control may be referred by the council to the Department
of Consumer Protection for administrative enforcement action, which
may result in a fine of not more than ten million dollars or action against
the cannabis establishment's license.
Sec. 52. Subsection (a) of section 21a -420g of the 2026 supplement to
the general statutes, as amended by section 56 of public act 26 -8, is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
passage):
(a) The Social Equity Council shall review the ownership information
and any other information necessary to confirm that an applicant
qualifies as a social equity applicant for all cannabis establishment
license type applications submitted to the department an d designated
by the applicant as a social equity applicant. The Social Equity Council
shall prescribe the documentation necessary for applicants to submit to
establish that the ownership, residency and income requirements for
social equity applicants a re met. On or before September 1, 2021, the
Social Equity Council shall post such necessary documentation
requirements on its Internet web site to inform applicants of such
requirements prior to the start of the application period. Except as
provided in the regulations adopted by the council pursuant to section
21a-420d, as amended by public act 26 -8, and this act, or 21a-420h, as
amended by [this act] public act 26-8, as applicable, no change shall be
made, without prior approval from the council, in the o wnership or
control of (1) a social equity applicant that has been approved by the
council during the period of provisional licensure and for three years
following issuance of a final license, or (2) an equity joint venture during
the period of provisional licensure and for seven years following
issuance of a final license.
Sec. 53. Subsection (c) of section 21a -420t of the 2026 supplement to
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the general statutes, as amended by section 69 of public act 26 -8, is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
(c) Dispensary facilities, [and] hybrid retailers and cannabis testing
laboratories shall perform real -time uploads to the prescription drug
monitoring program. Any cannabis or medical cannabis products sold
to qualifying patients, qualifying out -of-state patients, caregivers or
qualifying out -of-state caregivers shall be [dispensed by a licensed
pharmacist and shall be] recorded into the prescription drug monitoring
program, established pursuant to section 21a -254, in real -time or
immediately upon completion of the transaction, unless not reasonably
feasible for a specific tr ansaction, but in no case longer than one hour
after completion of the transaction.
Sec. 54. Section 21a -421j of the 2026 supplement to the general
statutes, as amended by section 78 of public act 26-8, is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) As used in this section: [, "total THC"]
(1) "Other cannabis plant material" (A) means cannabis trim and all
parts of any plant or species of the genus cannabis, or any infra specific
taxon thereof, excluding a growing plant, and the seeds thereof, and (B)
does not include (i) cannabis flower or hemp, as defined in section 22 -
61l, as amended by this act, or (ii) an uprooted clone or uprooted cutting
of the cannabis plant; and
(2) "Total THC" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-240,
as amended by this act.
(b) The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with
chapter 54 to implement the provisions of RERACA. Notwithstanding
the requirements of sections 4 -168 to 4 -172, inclusive, in order to
effectuate the purposes of RERACA and protect public health an d
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safety, prior to adopting such regulations the commissioner shall issue
policies and procedures to implement the provisions of RERACA that
shall have the force and effect of law. The commissioner shall post all
policies and procedures on the department's I nternet web site and
submit such policies and procedures to the joint standing committee of
the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to
consumer protection and the Secretary of the State for posting on the
eRegulations System, at least fi fteen days prior to the effective date of
any policy or procedure. The commissioner shall also provide such
policies and procedures, in a manner prescribed by the commissioner,
to each licensee. Any such policy or procedure shall no longer be
effective upo n the earlier of either the adoption of the policy or
procedure as a final regulation under section 4 -172 or July 1, 2028. The
commissioner shall issue policies and procedures and thereafter final
regulations that include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) Setting appropriate dosage, potency, concentration and serving
size limits and delineation requirements for cannabis, provided (A) a
standardized serving of an edible cannabis product or beverage, other
than a medical [marijuana] cannabis product, shall contain not more
than five milligrams of THC , with an allowable variance for cannabis
testing laboratory method uncertainty of up to plus or minus ten per
cent of the reported value for THC , and (B) there shall be no dosage,
potency or concentration limit for (i) cannabis concentrates, or (ii) other
cannabis plant material.
(2) Requiring that each single standardized serving of cannabis
product in a multiple -serving edible product or beverage is physically
demarked in a way that enables a reasonable person to determine how
much of the product constitutes a single serving and a ma ximum
amount of THC per multiple -serving edible cannabis product or
beverage.
(3) Requiring that, if it is impracticable to clearly demark every
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standardized serving of cannabis product or to make each standardized
serving easily separable in an edible cannabis product or beverage, the
product, other than cannabis concentrate , [or medical marijuana] other
cannabis plant material or a medical cannabis product, shall contain not
more than five milligrams of THC per unit of sale , with an allowable
variance for cannabis testing laboratory method uncertainty of up to
plus or minus ten per cent of the reported value for THC.
(4) Establishing, in consultation with the Department of Mental
Health and Addiction Services, consumer health materials that shall be
posted or distributed, as specified by the commissioner, by cannabis
establishments to maximize dissemination to cannabis con sumers.
Consumer health materials may include pamphlets, packaging inserts,
signage, online and printed advertisements and advisories and printed
health materials.
(5) Imposing labeling and packaging requirements for cannabis sold
by a cannabis establishment that include, but are not limited to, the
following:
(A) Inclusion of universal symbols to indicate that cannabis, or a
cannabis product, contains THC and is not legal or safe for individuals
younger than twenty-one years of age, and prescribe how such product
and product packaging shall utilize and exhibit such symbols.
(B) A disclosure concerning the length of time it typically takes for
the cannabis to affect an individual, including that certain forms of
cannabis take longer to have an effect.
(C) A notation of the amount of cannabis the cannabis product is
considered the equivalent to.
(D) A list of ingredients and additives for cannabis.
(E) Except as provided in subdivision (3) of subsection (f) of section
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21a-420p, as amended by [this act ] public act 26 -8, child -resistant,
tamper-resistant and light-resistant packaging. For the purposes of this
subparagraph, packaging shall be deemed to be (i) child-resistant if the
packaging satisfies the standard for special packaging established in 16
CFR 1700.1(b)(4), as amended from time to time, (ii) tamper -resistant if
the packaging has at least one barrier to, or indicator of, entry that
would preclude the contents of such packaging from being accessed or
adulterated without indicating to a reasonable person that such
packaging has been breached, and (iii) light-resistant if the packaging is
entirely and uniformly opaque and protects the entirety of the contents
of such packaging from the effects of light.
(F) Except as provided in subdivision (3) of subsection (f) of section
21a-420p, as amended by [this act ] public act 26 -8, (i) packaging for
cannabis intended for multiple servings to be resealable in such a
manner so as to render such packaging continuously child -resistant, as
described in subparagraph (E)(i) of this subdivision, and preserve the
integrity of the contents o f such packaging, and (ii) if packaging for
cannabis intended for multiple servings contains any edible cannabis
product, for each sing le standardized serving to be easily discernible
and (I) individually wrapped, or (II) physically demarked and
delineated as required under this subsection.
(G) Impervious packaging that protects the contents of such
packaging from contamination and exposure to any toxic or harmful
substance, including, but not limited to, any glue or other adhesive or
substance that is incorporated in such packaging.
(H) Product tracking information sufficient to determine where and
when the cannabis was grown and manufactured such that a product
recall could be effectuated.
(I) A net weight statement.
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(J) A recommended use by or expiration date.
(K) Standard and uniform packaging and labeling, including, but not
limited to, requirements (i) regarding branding or logos, (ii) that all
packaging be opaque, and (iii) that amounts and concentrations of THC
and cannabidiol, per serving and per package, be clearly marked on the
packaging or label of any cannabis product sold.
(L) For any cannabis concentrate cannabis product or other cannabis
plant material that contains a total THC percentage greater than thirty
per cent, a warning that such cannabis product or other cannabis plant
material is a high -potency product and may increase the risk of
psychosis.
(M) Chemotypes, which shall be displayed as (i) "High THC, Low
CBD" where the ratio of THC to CBD is greater than five to one and the
total THC percentage is at least fifteen per cent, (ii) "Moderate THC,
Moderate CBD" where the ratio of THC to CBD is at least one to five but
not greater than five to one and the total THC percentage is greater than
five per cent but less than fifteen per cent, (iii) "Low THC, High CBD"
where the ratio of THC to CBD is less than one to five and the total THC
percentage is no t greater than five per cent, or (iv) the chemotype
described in clause (i), (ii) or (iii) of this subparagraph that most closely
fits the cannabis or cannabis product, as determined by mathematical
analysis of the ratio of THC to CBD, where such cannabis or cannabis
product does not fit a chemotype described in clause (i), (ii) or (iii) of
this subparagraph.
(N) A requirement that, prior to being sold and transferred to a
consumer, qualifying patient , [or] qualifying out -of-state patient,
caregiver or qualifying out -of-state caregiver , cannabis packaging be
clearly labeled, whether printed directly on such packaging or affixed
by way of a separate label, other than an extended content label, with:
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(i) A unique identifier generated by a cannabis analytic tracking
system maintained by the department and used to track cannabis under
the policies and procedures issued, and final regulations adopted, by
the commissioner pursuant to this section; and
(ii) The following information concerning the cannabis contained in
such packaging, which shall be in legible English, black lettering, Times
New Roman font, flat regular typeface, on a contrasting background
and in uniform size of not less than one -tenth of on e inch, based on a
capital letter "K", which information shall also be available on the
Internet web site of the cannabis establishment that sells and transfers
such cannabis:
(I) The name of such cannabis, as registered with the department
under the policies and procedures issued, and final regulations adopted,
by the commissioner pursuant to this section.
(II) The expiration date, which shall not account for any refrigeration
after such cannabis is sold and transferred to the consumer, qualifying
patient, [or] qualifying out-of-state patient, caregiver or qualifying out-
of-state caregiver.
(III) The net weight or volume, expressed in metric and imperial
units.
(IV) The standardized serving size, expressed in customary units, and
the number of servings included in such packaging, if applicable.
(V) Directions for use and storage.
(VI) Each active ingredient comprising at least one per cent of such
cannabis, including cannabinoids, isomers, esters, ethers and salts and
salts of isomers, esters and ethers, and all quantities thereof expressed
in metric units and as a percentage of volume.
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(VII) A list of all known allergens, as identified by the federal Food
and Drug Administration, contained in such cannabis, or the denotation
"no known FDA identified allergens" if such cannabis does not contain
any allergen identified by the federal Food and Drug Administration.
(VIII) The following warning statement within, and outlined by, a red
box:
"This product is not FDA-approved, may be intoxicating, cause long-
term physical and mental health problems, and have delayed side
effects. It is illegal to operate a vehicle or machinery under the influence
of cannabis. Keep away from children."
(IX) At least one of the following warning statements, rotated
quarterly on an alternating basis:
"Warning: Frequent and prolonged use of cannabis can contribute to
mental health problems over time, including anxiety, depression,
stunted brain development and impaired memory."
"Warning: Consumption while pregnant or breastfeeding may be
harmful."
"Warning: Cannabis has intoxicating effects and may be habit -
forming and addictive."
"Warning: Consuming more than the recommended amount may
result in adverse effects requiring medical attention.".
(X) All information necessary to comply with labeling requirements
imposed under the laws of this state and federal law, including, but not
limited to, sections 21a-91 to 21a-120, inclusive, and 21a-151 to 21a-159,
inclusive, the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, 21 USC 301 et seq.,
as amended from time to time, and the federal Fair Packaging and
Labeling Act, 15 USC 1451 et seq., as amended from time to time, for
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similar products that do not contain cannabis.
(XI) Such additional warning labels for certain cannabis products as
the commissioner may require and post on the department's Internet
web site.
(6) Establishing laboratory testing standards. [,]
(7) Establishing consumer disclosures concerning mold and yeast in
cannabis. [and]
(8) Establishing permitted remediation practices , which practices
shall include, but need not be limited to, remediation of cannabis flower
or other cannabis plant material by way of one or more exposures to
ionizing radiation for any cannabis flower or other cannabis plant
material that fails any labor atory testing due to microbial
contamination.
[(7)] (9) Restricting forms of cannabis products and cannabis product
delivery systems to ensure consumer safety and deter public health
concerns.
[(8)] (10) Prohibiting certain manufacturing methods, or inclusion of
additives to cannabis products, including, but not limited to, (A) added
flavoring, terpenes or other additives unless approved by the
department, or (B) any form of nicotine or other additive cont aining
nicotine.
[(9)] (11) Prohibiting cannabis product types that appeal to children,
including, but not limited to, facsimiles of foods, beverages and other
items that appeal to children.
[(10)] (12) Establishing physical and cyber security requirements
related to build out, monitoring and protocols for cannabis
establishments as a requirement for licensure.
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[(11)] (13) Placing temporary limits on the sale of cannabis in the
adult-use market, if deemed appropriate and necessary by the
commissioner, in response to a shortage of cannabis for qualifying
patients.
[(12)] (14) Requiring retailers and hybrid retailers to make best efforts
to provide access to (A) low -dose THC products, including products
that have one milligram and two and a half milligrams of THC per dose,
and (B) high-dose CBD products.
[(13)] (15) Requiring producers, cultivators, micro -cultivators,
product manufacturers and food and beverage manufacturers to
register brand names for cannabis, in accordance with the policies and
procedures and subject to the fee set forth in, regulations adopted under
chapter 420f.
[(14)] (16) Prohibiting a cannabis establishment from selling, other
than the sale of medical [marijuana] cannabis products between
cannabis establishments and the sale of cannabis to qualifying patients,
[and] qualifying out-of-state patients, caregivers and qualifying out-of-
state caregivers, (A) cannabis flower [or other cannabis plant material ]
with a total THC concentration greater than thirty-five per cent on a dry-
weight basis, and (B) any cannabis product other than cannabis flower
and cannabis plant material with a total THC concentration greater than
seventy per cent on a dry -weight basis, except that the provisions of
subparagraph (B) of this subdivision shall not apply to the sale of
cannabis concentrates, other cannabis plant material or prefilled
cartridges for use in an electronic cannabis delivery system, as defined
in section 19a -342a, as amended by [this act, and the department may
adjust the percentages set forth in subparagraph (A) or (B) of this
subdivision in regulations adopted pursuant to this section for purposes
of public health or to address market access or shortage] public act 26-8.
As used in this subdivision, "cannabis plant material" means material
from the cannabis plant, as defined in section 21a -279a, as amended by
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[this act] public act 26-8.
[(15)] (17) Requiring dispensary facilities, hybrid retailers and
retailers to display the following types of cannabis in a form and manner
prescribed by the department and in an area physically and visually
separated from other cannabis for sale at such establishment : (A)
Cannabis flower or other cannabis plant material with a total THC
concentration greater than thirty per cent on a dry-weight basis, and (B)
any cannabis product other than cannabis flower and cannabis plant
material with a total THC concentration greater than sixty per cent on a
dry-weight basis, excluding prefilled cartridges for use in an electronic
cannabis delivery system. As used in this subdivision, "cannabis plant
material" has the same meaning as provided in subsection (j) of section
21a-279a, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8.
[(16)] (18) Requiring any dispensary facility, hybrid retailer or retailer
that sells any form of cannabis that exceeds the THC concentrations set
forth in subdivision [(15)] (17) of this subsection to include the words
"Warning - High THC" next to each such form of cannabis on such
cannabis establishment's menus and advertisements.
[(17)] (19) Prescribing signage to be displayed at a dispensary facility,
hybrid retailer or retailer informing consumers, qualifying patients ,
[and] qualifying out-of-state patients, caregivers and qualifying out-of-
state caregivers of health risks associated with cannabis in excess of the
THC concentrations set forth in subdivision [(15)] (17) of this subsection.
[(18)] (20) Permitting the outdoor cultivation of cannabis.
[(19)] (21) Prohibiting packaging that is (A) visually similar to any
commercially similar product that does not contain cannabis, or (B) used
for any good that is marketed to individuals reasonably expected to be
younger than twenty-one years of age.
[(20)] (22) Allowing packaging to include a picture of the cannabis
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product and contain a logo of one cannabis establishment, which logo
may be comprised of not more than three colors and provided neither
black nor white shall be considered one of such three colors.
[(21)] (23) Requiring packaging to (A) be entirely and uniformly one
color, and (B) not incorporate any information, print, embossing,
debossing, graphic or hidden feature, other than any permitted or
required label.
[(22)] (24) Requiring that packaging and labeling for an edible
cannabis product, excluding the warning labels required under this
subsection and a picture of the cannabis product described in
subdivision [(20)] (22) of this subsection but including, but not limited
to, the logo of the cannabis establishment, shall only be comprised of
black and white or a combination thereof.
[(23)] (25) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this
subdivision, requiring that delivery device cartridges be labeled, in a
clearly legible manner and in as large a font as the size of the device
reasonably allows, with only the following information (i) the na me of
the cannabis establishment where the cannabis is grown or
manufactured, (ii) the cannabis brand, (iii) the total THC and total CBD
content contained within the delivery device cartridge, (iv) the
expiration date, and (v) the unique id entifier generated by a cannabis
analytic tracking system maintained by the department and used to
track cannabis under the policies and procedures issued, and final
regulations adopted, by the commissioner pursuant to this section.
(B) A cannabis establishment may emboss, deboss or similarly print
the name of the cannabis establishment's business entity, and one logo
with not more than three colors, on a delivery device cartridge.
[(24)] (26) Prescribing signage to be prominently displayed at
dispensary facilities, retailers and hybrid retailers disclosing (A)
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possible health risks related to mold, and (B) the use and possible health
risks related to the use of mold remediation techniques.
Sec. 55. Subdivision (1) of subsection (d) of section 21a -425a of the
2026 supplement to the general statutes, as amended by section 94 of
public act 26 -8, is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(d) (1) [An] No infused beverage manufacturer shall [only] obtain
hemp, a hemp product or an intermediate hemp derivative for the
purpose of manufacturing any infused beverage that is intended to be
sold or offered for sale in this state unless such hemp product is in the
form of hemp oil or an intermediate hemp derivative, and no such
infused beverage manufacturer shall use any hemp product other than
hemp oil or an intermediate hemp derivative to manufacture any such
infused beverage.
Sec. 56. Subsection (a) of section 22 -61l of the general statutes, as
amended by section 99 of public act 26-8, is repealed and the following
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) For the purpose of this section and section 22-61m, as amended by
[this act] public act 26-8, the following terms have the same meaning as
provided in 7 CFR 990.1, as amended from time to time: "Acceptable
hemp THC level", "Agricultural marketing service", "Audit",
"Cannabis", "Conviction", "Corrective action plan", "Culpable mental
state greater than negligence", "Decarboxylated", "Decarboxylation",
"Disposal", "Dry weight basis", "Gas chromatography", "Geospatial
location", "Handle", "Liquid chromatography", "Immature plants",
"Information sharing system", "Measurement of uncertainty",
"Negligence", "Phytocannabinoid", "Postdecarboxylation",
"Remediation", "Reverse distributor" and "Total THC". In addition, for
the purpose of this section, section 22 -61m, as amended by [this act ]
public act 26-8, and sections 100 and 101 of [this act] public act 26-8:
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(1) "Cannabidiol" or "CBD" means the nonpsychotropic compound by
the same name;
(2) "Cannabis" (A) means all parts of any plant or species of the genus
cannabis, or any infra specific taxon thereof, whether growing or not;
(B) includes (i) every resin extracted from any part of such plant,
including, but not limited to, every resin extracted from (I) the mature
stalks of such plant, (II) the fiber produced from the mature stalks of
such plant, or (III) the oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, (ii)
every other compound, manu facture, salt, derivative, mixture or
preparation of such plant or its resin, and (iii) every (I) high-THC hemp
product, as defined in section 21a -240, as amended by [this act] public
act 26 -8 and this act , (II) manufactured cannabinoid, as defined in
section 21a-240, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8 and this act, or
(III) cannabinol or cannabidiol and chemical compounds which are
similar to cannabinol or cannabidiol in chemical structure or which are
similar thereto in physiological effect, which are controlled substances
under this chapter, except cannabidiol derived from hemp, that is not a
high-THC hemp product; and (C) does not include (i) the mature stalks
of such plant, (ii) the fiber produced from the mature stalks of such
plant, (iii) the oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, (iv) any
other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation
of the mature stalks of such plant, (v) the seeds of such plant, (vi) hemp
(I) with a total THC, as defined in section 21a -240, as amended by [this
act] public act 26 -8 and this act , concentration of not more than three -
tenths per cent on a dry -weight basis, and (II) that is not a high -THC
hemp product, (vii) [cannabinol, cannabigerol, cannabichromene or any
other m inor cannabinoid derived from hemp, (viii) ] any substance
approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration or successor
agency as a drug and reclassified in any schedule of controlled
substances or unscheduled by the federal Drug Enforcement
Administration or successor agency that is included i n the same
schedule designated by the federal Drug Enforcement Administration
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or successor agency, or [(ix)] (viii) any infused beverage, as defined in
section 21a-425, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8;
(3) "Certificate of analysis" means a certificate from a laboratory
describing the results of the laboratory's testing of a sample;
(4) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Agriculture, or the
commissioner's designated agent;
(5) "Cultivate" means to plant, grow, harvest, handle and store a plant
or crop;
(6) "Federal act" means the United States Agricultural Marketing Act
of 1946, 7 USC 1639o et seq., as amended from time to time;
(7) "Department" means the Department of Agriculture;
(8) "Hemp" has the same meaning as provided in the federal act;
(9) "Hemp products" means all manufacturer hemp products and
producer hemp products;
(10) "Independent testing laboratory" means a facility:
(A) For which no person who has any direct or indirect financial or
managerial interest in the laboratory and also has any direct or indirect
interest in a facility that:
(i) Produces, distributes, manufactures or sells hemp or hemp
products, or cannabis in any state or territory of the United States; or
(ii) Cultivates, processes, distributes, dispenses or sells cannabis; and
(B) That is accredited as a laboratory in compliance with section 21a-
408-59 of the regulations of Connecticut state agencies;
(11) "Infused beverage" has the same meaning as provided in section
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21a-425, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8;
(12) "Infused beverage manufacturer" has the same meaning as
provided in section 21a-425, as amended by [this act] public act 26-8;
(13) "Intermediate hemp derivative" means an oil or concentrate that
(A) is extracted directly and exclusively from raw hemp plant material,
(B) contains a total THC, as defined in section 21a -240, as amended by
[this act] public act 26-8 and this act, concentration of more than 0.3 per
cent on a dry weight basis, and (C) is extracted by (i) adding heat, (ii)
decarboxylation, (iii) adding (I) a Class 3 organic solvent within the
meaning of the most recent United States Pharmacopeia, Chapter 467,
as amended from time to time, or (II) another solvent approved by the
Commissioner of Consumer Protection, (iv) ethanol extraction, (v)
carbon dioxide extraction, (vi) a solventless extraction method,
including, but not limited to, the use of ice water, rosin pressin g, dry
sifting or steam distillation, or (vii) an extraction process not set forth in
subparagraphs (C)(i) to (C)(vi), inclusive, of this subdivision, provided
such extraction process has been approved by the Commissioner of
Consumer Protection;
(14) "Laboratory" means a laboratory that meets the requirements of
7 CFR 990.3 and that is accredited as a testing laboratory to International
Organization for Standardization (ISO) 17025 by a third -party
accrediting body such as the American Association for L aboratory
Accreditation or the Assured Calibration and Laboratory Accreditation
Select Services;
(15) "Law enforcement agency" means the Connecticut State Police,
the United States Drug Enforcement Administration, the Department of
Agriculture, the Department of Consumer Protection Drug Control
Division or any other federal, state or local law enforcement agency or
drug suppression unit;
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(16) "Licensee" means an individual or entity that possesses a license
to produce or manufacture hemp or hemp products in this state;
(17) "Manufacture" means the conversion of the hemp plant into a by-
product or an extract by means of (A) adding heat, (B) decarboxylation,
(C) adding (i) a Class 3 organic solvent within the meaning of the most
recent United States Pharmacopeia, Chapter 467, as amended from time
to time, or (ii) another solvent approved by the Commissioner of
Consumer Protection, (D) ethanol extraction, (E) carbon dioxide
extraction, (F) a solventless extraction method, including, but not
limited to, the use of ice water, rosin pressing, dry sifting or steam
distillation, or (G) any method of extraction that modifies the original
composition of the plant for the purpose of creating a manufacturer
hemp product for commercial or research purposes;
(18) "Manufacturer" means a person in the state licensed by the
Commissioner of Consumer Protection to manufacture, handle, store
and market manufacturer hemp products pursuant to the provisions of
section 22 -61m, as amended by [this act ] public act 26 -8, and any
regulation adopted pursuant to section 22-61m, as amended by [this act]
public act 26-8;
(19) "Market" or "marketing" means promoting, distributing or
selling a hemp product within the state, in another state or outside of
the United States and includes efforts to advertise and gather
information about the needs or preferences of potential consumer s or
suppliers;
(20) "On-site manager" means the individual designated by the
producer license applicant or producer responsible for on -site
management and operations of a licensed producer;
(21) "Pesticide" has the same meaning as "pesticide chemical" as
provided in section 21a-92;
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(22) "Lot" means a contiguous area in a field, greenhouse or indoor
growing structure containing the same variety or strain of hemp
throughout the area;
(23) "Post-harvest sample" means a representative sample of the form
of hemp taken from the harvested hemp from a particular lot's harvest
that is collected in accordance with the procedures established by the
commissioner;
(24) "Pre-harvest sample" means a composite, representative portion
from plants in a hemp lot, that is collected in accordance with the
procedures established by the commissioner;
(25) "Produce" means to cultivate hemp or create any producer hemp
product;
(26) "State plan" means a state plan, as described in the federal act and
as authorized pursuant to this section;
(27) "THC" means delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol;
(28) "Controlled Substances Act" or "CSA" means the Controlled
Substances Act as codified in 21 USC 801 et seq.;
(29) "Criminal history report" means the fingerprint -based state and
national criminal history record information obtained in accordance
with section 29-17a;
(30) "Drug Enforcement Administration" or "DEA" means the United
States Drug Enforcement Administration;
(31) "Farm service agency" or "FSA" means an agency of the United
States Department of Agriculture;
(32) "Key participant" means a sole proprietor, a partner in
partnership or a person with executive managerial control in an entity,
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including persons such as a chief executive officer, chief operating
officer and chief financial officer;
(33) "Manufacturer hemp product" (A) means a commodity
manufactured from the hemp plant, for commercial or research
purposes, that (i) is intended for human ingestion, inhalation,
absorption or other internal consumption, and (ii) contains a THC
concentration of not more than 0.3 per cent on a dry weight basis or per
volume or weight of such manufacturer hemp product, and (B) does not
include an infused beverage;
(34) "Producer" means an individual or entity licensed by the
commissioner to produce and market producer hemp products
pursuant to the federal act, the state plan, the provisions of this section
and the regulations adopted pursuant to this section;
(35) "Producer hemp product" means any of the following produced
in this state: Raw hemp product, fiber -based hemp product or animal
hemp food product, and each of which contains a THC concentration of
not more than 0.3 per cent on a dry weight basis or per volume or weight
of such producer hemp product;
(36) "USDA" means the United States Department of Agriculture;
(37) "Entity" means a corporation, joint stock company, association,
limited partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability
company, irrevocable trust, estate, charitable organization or other
similar organization, including any such organization participating in
the hemp production as a partner in a general partnership, a participant
in a joint venture or a participant in a similar organization; and
(38) "Homogenize" means to blend hemp into a mixture that has a
uniform quality and content throughout such mixture.
Sec. 57. Subsection (c) of section 22 -61n of the general statutes, as
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amended by section 103 of public act 26-8, is repealed and the following
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(c) Hemp or hemp products purchased by a producer, cultivator,
micro-cultivator, food and beverage manufacturer or product
manufacturer from a third party shall be tracked as a separate batch
throughout the manufacturing process in order to document the
disposition of such hemp or hemp products. Once hemp or hemp
products are received by a producer, cultivator, micro -cultivator, food
and beverage manufacturer or product manufacturer , [to manufacture
a cannabis product ,] such hemp or hemp products shall be deemed
cannabis and shall comply with the requirements for cannabis contained
in the applicable provisions of the general statutes and any regulations
adopted pursuant to such provisions. A producer, cultivator, micro -
cultivator, foo d and beverage manufacturer or product manufacturer
shall retain a copy of the certificate of analysis for purchased hemp or
hemp products and invoice and transport documents that evidence the
quantity purchased and date received.
Sec. 58. Subsection (a) of section 20 of public act 26-64 is repealed and
the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) As used in this section:
(1) "Cable operator" has the same meaning as provided in 47 USC 522,
as amended from time to time;
(2) "Commercial advertisement" has the same meaning as such term
is used in the Commercial Advertisement Loudness Mitigation Act, P.L.
111-311, as amended from time to time;
(3) "Consumer" means any person who is physically present in this
state; [and is a recipient, or a prospective recipient, of a streaming video
service;]
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(4) "Multichannel video programming distributor" has the same
meaning as provided in 47 USC 522, as amended from time to time;
(5) "Person" means any individual, association, corporation, limited
liability company, partnership, trust or other legal entity;
(6) "Streaming video service" [means any service through which any
video content, including, but not limited to, any video programming, is
made available directly to consumers through a distribution method
that uses the Internet protocol ] (A) means any person that makes
available directly to consumers, through a distribution method that uses
Internet protocol, either (i) video programming, or (ii) video content
such person makes available for users to view, and (B) does not include
(i) a te levision broadcast station, cable operator or other multichannel
video programming distributor, or (ii) any person that serves video
programming or video content without commercial advertisements;
(7) "Television broadcast station" has the same meaning as provided
in 47 USC 325, as amended from time to time; and
(8) "Video programming" has the same meaning as provided in 47
USC 613, as amended from time to time.
Sec. 59. Section 49 of public act 26 -8 is repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) No retailer, hybrid retailer or dispensary facility shall borrow
money or receive credit, directly or indirectly, in any form for a period
in excess of thirty days from any cultivator, micro -cultivator or
producer.
(b) No cannabis establishment shall borrow money or receive credit,
directly or indirectly, in any form for a period in excess of thirty days
from any cannabis testing laboratory.
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Sec. 60. ( Effective July 1, 2026 ) (a) Not later than January 1, 2027, the
State Fire Marshal, in consultation with the Commissioner of
Administrative Services and the working group established pursuant to
section 61 of this act, shall, within available appropriations, establish a
two-year risk-based residential fire inspection pilot program to improve
the scheduling, documentation and prioritization of fire inspections of
residential buildings designed to be occupied by more than two families
pursuant to se ction 29 -305 of the general statutes. Municipalities
participating in such pilot program shall: (1) Implement a schedule of
such residential fire inspections using a standardized scoring method
that assigns scores for violations and classifies residential buildings
based on fire prevention and construction features, (2) maintain timely
fire inspections as required pursuant to section 29 -305 of the general
statutes, while allocating more fire inspection resources to high -risk
residential buildings, (3) compl y with the data collection and record -
keeping requirements of such pilot program, including, but not limited
to, using a data system designated by the State Fire Marshal to record
fire inspection data required pursuant to such pilot program, and (4)
review the current fire inspection revenue structure and staffing
allocation.
(b) The State Fire Marshal shall select, from among applicants for
participation in the risk-based residential fire inspection pilot program,
not less than three participating municipalities which shall include, but
need not be limited to, two municipaliti es with populations of at least
one hundred thousand and one municipality with a population of at
least thirty-five thousand, but less than one hundred thousand. If any
participating municipality withdraws or is unable to meet the
requirements of the pilot program, the State Fire Marshal may select a
comparable municipality as a replacement. In selecting participating
municipalities, the State Fire Marshal shall consult with the appointing
authority for local fire marshals within such municipality, pursuant to
section 29-297 of the general statutes, to determine the (1) volume and
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diversity of residential buildings designed to be occupied by more than
two families in such municipality, (2) availability of local resources, and
(3) capability for consistent implementation of such pilot program.
(c) For the implementation of the risk -based residential fire
inspection pilot program by a participating municipality, the State Fire
Marshal shall:
(1) Specify a standardized scoring method that assigns scores to
violations identified during fire inspections based on the severity of life-
safety hazards related to such violations;
(2) Establish a grading system that classifies such residential
buildings based on fire prevention and construction features and other
risk indicators for the purpose of prioritizing the annual fire inspection
of such residential buildings;
(3) Develop a pre -inspection checklist for owners of residential
buildings to encourage voluntary correction of potential hazards prior
to a fire inspection;
(4) Standardize the documentation of fire inspection findings to
support enforcement actions and compliance follow -up, which
documentation shall include, but not be limited to, photographs; and
(5) Designate one or more data systems, including, but not limited to,
the National Emergency Response Information System, that is capable
of (A) collecting and exporting data related to, at a minimum, residential
building classifications with risk -relevant construction and fire
prevention features, dates and types of fire inspections, violations cited
with assigned score, corrective action status and fire inspections
timelines pursuant to section 29 -305 of the general statutes, (B)
generating residential b uilding classifications based on data recorded
into such system, (C) producing quarterly reports of fire inspection
activities, including, but not limited to, responses to complaints and
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outcomes of public reporting, and (D) establishing a baseline of
residential fire inspection activity for each municipality based on a two-
year history of data collection or, when such data is unavailable, based
on predictive data deemed sufficient to establish a baseline by the State
Fire Marshal. As used in this subdivision, "National Emergency
Response Information System" means the national data system
developed or designated by the United States Fire Administration, or its
successor system, for the coll ection, reporting and analysis of fire and
emergency incident data.
(d) The risk -based residential fire inspection pilot program shall
terminate on January 1, 2029. Not later than February 1, 2027, and
annually thereafter until February 1, 2029, the State Fire Marshal shall
submit, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general
statutes, to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly
having cognizance of matters relating to public safety and security a
report on such pilot program, whether such pilot program should be
made permanent based on the results from such pilot program and
whether the recommendations of the working group established
pursuant to section 61 of this act were integrated in such pilot program.
Sec. 61. ( Effective from passage ) (a) There is established a working
group to advise the State Fire Marshal on the development and
implementation of a risk-based residential fire inspection pilot program,
established pursuant to section 60 of this act, concerning the scheduling,
documentation and prioritization of fire inspections of residential
buildings designed to be occupied by more than two families pursuant
to section 29-305 of the general statutes. The working group shall advise
on (1) the design and implementation of such pilot program, (2) any data
collection required pursuant to such pilot program and an assessment
of the capacity of participating municipalities to report such data, (3) the
progression of such pilot program and any data quality iss ues, and (4)
any modifications to the reporting requirements under such pilot
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program.
(b) The working group shall consist of the following members:
(1) The State Fire Marshal, or the State Fire Marshal's designee;
(2) Four local fire marshals appointed by the Connecticut Fire
Marshals Association, one of whom shall represent a municipality
participating in the risk-based residential fire inspection pilot program;
(3) Two members of the Joint Council of Connecticut Fire Services
Organizations, appointed by said council;
(4) Two appointed jointly by the chairpersons and ranking members
of the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having
cognizance of matters relating to public safety, who shall be members of
such joint standing committee, or their designees;
(5) A representative of the Connecticut Conference of Municipalities,
appointed by said conference; and
(6) Two appointed by the State Fire Marshal, each of whom shall be a
representative from a municipality participating in the risk -based
residential fire inspection pilot program.
(c) All initial appointments to the working group shall be made not
later than thirty days after the effective date of this section, except the
representative appointed pursuant to subdivision (6) of subsection (b)
of this section shall be appointed as soon as practical after the State Fire
Marshal selects the participating municipalities in the risk -based
residential fire inspection program pursuant to subsection (b) of section
60 of this act. Any vacancy shall be filled by the appointing authority.
(d) The chairpersons of the joint standing committee of the General
Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public safety shall
select the chairpersons of the working group from among the members
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of the working group. Such chairpersons shall schedule the first meeting
of the working group, which shall be held not later than sixty days after
the effective date of this section.
(e) The administrative staff of the joint standing committee of the
General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public safety
shall serve as administrative staff of the working group.
(f) Not later than December 1, 2026, and annually thereafter until
December 1, 2028, the working group shall submit to the State Fire
Marshal its evaluation of and recommendations for the implementation
of the risk-based residential fire inspection pilot program, including, but
not limited to, the following:
(1) An evaluation of the pilot program's effectiveness in improving
statutory inspection compliance, reducing inspection backlog,
identifying and correcting high severity life safety hazards, improving
firefighter operational safety through better hazard i ntelligence,
reducing repeat violations, supporting consistent enforcement actions,
and assessing fiscal and staffing impacts through comparisons of
municipalities participating in the pilot program to baseline pre -pilot
program fire inspection activity of such municipality and, where
practicable, to similarly situated nonparticipating municipalities;
(2) Not later than December 1, 2026, (A) designation of the type of
data required to establish a baseline of residential fire inspection activity
in a municipality based on a two -year history or, when such data is
unavailable, based on predictive data, (B) identification of the gaps in
the availability of such data for each participating municipality, (C)
determination of initial inspection volumes and timelines, (D)
development of a plan for data collection and quality assurance during
the pilot program, (E) for the requirements specified in subsection (c) of
section 60 of this act, development of a (i) standardized scoring method
for violations based on the severity of life -safety hazards; (ii) grading
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system for residential buildings based on fire prevention and
construction features; (iii) pre -inspection checklist for owners of
residential buildings; and (iv) standardized documentation system for
fire inspection findings, and (F) recommendations for an y adjustments
to the implementation of the pilot program;
(3) Not later than December 1, 2027, (A) determination of any
adjustment to inspection volumes and timelines, (B) aggregation of
violations by severity and changes from initial baseline data for each
participating municipality, (C) identification of any trends in voluntary
hazard correction undertaken as result of the pre -inspection checklist
developed pursuant to subsection (c) of section 60 of this act, (D)
assessment of the use of the data system designated pursuant to
subsection (c) of section 60 of thi s act and the quality of such data, and
(E) an overview of the results of the pilot program as of such date; and
(4) Not later than December 1, 2028, recommendations for (A)
legislation required to continue or alter the inspection schedule
developed during the pilot program for each participating municipality,
(B) state -wide implementation, other expansion, modificat ion or
termination of the pilot program, and (C) if applicable, statutory,
regulatory, staffing, funding or technological changes required for
broader implementation of the pilot program.
(g) The working group shall terminate on the date that it submits its
final report or February 1, 2029, whichever is later.
Sec. 62. Section 30 -22c of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) As used in this section:
(1) "Juice bar or similar facility" means an area within permit premises
in which nonalcoholic beverages are served to minors; and
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(2) "Permit premises" means the premises operated under (A) a cafe
permit issued under subsection (c) of section 30-22a, or (B) a cafe permit
for wine, beer and cider issued under section 30-22g.
(b) The holder of a cafe permit issued under subsection (c) of section
30-22a or a cafe permit for wine, beer and cider issued under section 30-
22g may operate a juice bar or similar facility at permit premises if the
juice bar or similar facility is limited to a room or rooms or separate area
within the permit premises wherein there is no sale, consumption,
dispensing or presence of alcoholic liquor. The holder of a cafe permit,
at all times when a portion of the permit premises is being operated as
a juice bar, shall limit the number of patrons in the portion of the permit
premises being operated as a juice bar to not more than ten per cent of
the total building occupant load establ ished by the Fire Marshal under
the Fire Safety Code.
(c) Any town may, by ordinance, (1) provide the hours during which
a juice bar may operate, or (2) notwithstanding the provisions of
subsection (b) of this section, prohibit the operation of juice bars within
the town or municipality.
[(c)] (d) The holder of a cafe permit issued under subsection (c) of
section 30-22a or a cafe permit for wine, beer and cider issued under
section 30 -22g shall provide advance written notice to the chief law
enforcement officer of the town in which the permit premises is located
of the specific dates and hours of any scheduled event at which such
permit premises, or any portion thereof, will be used to operate a juice
bar or similar facility. Such notice shall be sent (1) by certified mail, or
by electronic mail to the designated electronic mail address for the chief
law enforcement officer, and (2) in a manner so that such notice is
received by such chief law enforcement officer not less than five days,
and not more than thirty days, prior to the date of such scheduled event.
The chief law enforcement officer of the town in which such permit
premises is located may designate one or more law enforcement officers
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to attend any such scheduled event at the cost of such permit holder. If,
at any time prior to or during such scheduled event, the chief law
enforcement officer of the town, or such officer's designee, determines
that (A) there is insufficient police capacity to properly and safely
monitor the event or enforce any applicable law related to the event or
the permit premises, or (B) the event may, or has, become a danger to
public safety, such officer or designee may, in such officer's or designee's
sole discr etion, reject such scheduled event or order such scheduled
event to be terminated.
[(d)] (e) Nothing in this section shall exempt the holder of a cafe
permit issued under subsection (c) of section 30-22a or a cafe permit for
wine, beer and cider issued under section 30-22g from compliance with
any other provisions of the general statutes or regula tions of
Connecticut state agencies concerning minors, including, but not
limited to, the prohibition against the sale of alcoholic liquor to minors.
The presence of alcoholic liquor or the sale or dispensing to or
consumption of alcoholic liquor by a minor at a juice bar or similar
facility is prohibited.
[(e)] (f) (1) A permittee or agent or employee of a permittee who
operates a juice bar or similar facility at a permit premises may serve
alcoholic liquor during the hours of operation of such juice bar or similar
facility only to a person who is twenty -one years of age or older and
who is wearing a conspicuous wristband that has been issued to the
person wearing it by the permittee or agent or employee of the permittee
to indicate that the permittee or agent or employee of the permittee has
verified that such person is twenty-one years of age or older.
(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (1) of this subsection, any town or
municipality may, by ordinance, prohibit the sale of alcoholic liquor on
any permit premises while a juice bar is in operation.
[(f)] (g) Any permittee or agent or employee of a permittee convicted
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of a violation of any provision of this section shall (1) (A) for a first
offense, be fined not more than two thousand five hundred dollars, (B)
for a second offense, be fined not more than five thousand dollars, and
(C) for a third or subsequent offense, be fined not more than ten
thousand dollars, or (2) be imprisoned not more than one year for a first,
second, third or subsequent offense, or (3) be both fined and imprisoned.
(h) The Department of Consumer Protection may conduct an
investigation into any purported violation of the provisions of this
section and, if the department finds any violation, may impose any
penalty set forth in section 30-55.
Sec. 63. Section 53a -115 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the first degree when: (1)
With intent to cause damage to tangible property of another and having
no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to do so,
such person damages tangible property of ano ther in an amount
exceeding one thousand five hundred dollars, or (2) with intent to cause
(A) (i) damage to tangible property of another and having no reasonable
ground to believe that such person has a right to do so, or (ii) an
interruption or impairment of service rendered to the public , and
[having] (B) with no reasonable ground to believe that such person has
a right to do so, such person damages or tampers with tangible property
of a utility or mode of public transportation, power or communication,
and thereby causes an interruption or impairment of service rendered
to the public, or (3) with intent to cause damage to any electronic
monitoring equipment owned or leased by the state or its agent and
required as a condition of probation or conditional discharge pursuant
to section 53a-30, as a condition of release pursuant to section 54-64a or
as a condition of community release pursuant to section 18 -100c, and
having no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a rig ht to
do so, such person damages such electronic monitoring equipment and
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thereby causes an interruption in its ability to function, or (4) with intent
to cause (A) damage to tangible property of another and having no
reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to do so, or (B)
an interruption or impairment of service rendered to the public and
having no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to
do so, such person damages or tampers with [(A)] (i) any tangible
property owned by the state, a municipality or a person for fire alarm or
police alarm purposes, [(B)] (ii) any telecommunication system operated
by the state police or a municipal police department, [(C)] (iii) any
emergency medical or fire service dispatching system, [(D)] (iv) any fire
suppression equipment owned by the state, a municipality, a person or
a fire district, or [(E)] (v) any fire hydrant or hydrant system owned by
the state or a municipality, a person, a fire district or a private water
company, or (5) with intent to cause damage to tangible property owned
by the state or a municipality that is located on public land and having
no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to do so,
such person damages such tangible property in an amount exceeding
one thousand five hundred dollars.
(b) Criminal mischief in the first degree is a class D felony.
Sec. 64. Section 53a -116 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) A person is guilty of criminal mischief in the second degree when:
(1) With intent to cause damage to tangible property of another and
having no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to
do so, such person damages tangible property of an other in an amount
exceeding two hundred fifty dollars; or (2) with intent to cause (A)
damage to tangible property of another and having no reasonable
ground to believe that such person has a right to do so, or (B) an
interruption or impairment of service rendered to the public and having
no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to do so,
such person damages or tampers with tangible property of a public
Substitute House Bill No. 5222

Public Act No. 26-100 153 of 153

utility or mode of public transportation, power or communication, and
thereby causes a risk of interruption or impairment of service rendered
to the public; or (3) with intent to cause damage to tangible property
owned by the state or a municipality that i s located on public land and
having no reasonable ground to believe that such person has a right to
do so, such person damages such tangible property in an amount
exceeding two hundred fifty dollars.
(b) Criminal mischief in the second degree is a class A misdemeanor.
Sec. 65. ( Effective July 1, 2026 ) (a) Up to $250,000 of the amount
appropriated in section 1 of public act 25-168, as amended by public act
26-68, to the Attorney General, for Personal Services, for the fiscal year
ending June 30, 2027, shall be transferred to the Department of
Consumer Protection, for Personal Services, for the costs of registering
and ensuring compliance by operators of hotels, motels, inns and similar
lodgings.
(b) The office of the Attorney General and the Department of
Consumer Protection shall enter into a memorandum of understanding
to effectuate the purpose of subsection (a) of this section.
Sec. 66. Sections 11 and 16 of public act 26-64 are repealed. (Effective
from passage)
Sec. 67. Sections 1 and 33 of public act 26-15 are repealed. ( Effective
from passage)
Sec. 68. Sections 55 and 79 of public act 26 -8 are repealed. ( Effective
from passage)
Sec. 69 . Sections 20-324g and 42 -103b to 42 -103m, inclusive, of the
general statutes are repealed. (Effective from passage)