AN ACT CONCERNING THE DEPARTMENT OF EMERGENCY SERVICES AND PUBLIC PROTECTION'S RECOMMENDATIONS REGARDING VARIOUS STATUTES RELATING TO PUBLIC SAFETY.

Substitute House Bill No. 5291

Public Act No. 26-45

AN ACT CONCERNING THE DEPARTMENT OF EMERGENCY
SERVICES AND PUBLIC PROTECTION'S RECOMMENDATIONS
REGARDING VARIOUS STATUTES RELATING TO PUBLIC
SAFETY.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General
Assembly convened:

Section 1. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2026) (a) As used in this section,
"municipal fire department" means any department, agency or
organization of a municipality, as defined in section 7-148 of the general
statutes, fire district established pursuant to section 7-325 of the general
statutes or o ther political subdivision of the state, whether staffed by
career or volunteer personnel, or a combination thereof, that provides
fire suppression or fire protection services.
(b) Not later than ten business days after the appointment of a new
or interim fire chief of a municipal fire department, such municipal fire
department shall notify the Department of Emergency Services and
Public Protection of such appointment. Such notif ication shall be made
on a form prescribed by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and
Public Protection and shall include, but need not be limited to, the name
of the appointee, effective date of such appointment, department name,
mailing address, elect ronic mail address, mobile telephone number,
dispatch contact number and any other information the commissioner
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deems necessary for the department's records.
(c) The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with the
provisions of chapter 54 of the general statutes, to implement the
provisions of this section.
Sec. 2. Subsection (b) of section 14-227a of the 2026 supplement to the
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, in any criminal
prosecution for violation of subsection (a) of this section, evidence
respecting the amount of alcohol or drug in the defendant's blood or
urine at the time of the alleged offense, as sh own by a chemical test of
the defendant's breath, blood or urine, shall be admissible and
competent provided: (1) The defendant was afforded a reasonable
opportunity to telephone an attorney prior to the performance of the test
and consented to the tak ing of the test upon which such analysis is
made; (2) if the chemical test was of the defendant's breath, a true copy
of the report of the [test] result of such test was mailed to or personally
delivered to the defendant within twenty -four hours or by the end of
the next regular business day, after such result was known, whichever
is later; (3) the test was performed by or at the direction of a police officer
according to methods and with equipment approved by the Department
of Emergency Services and Public Protection and was performed in
accordance with the regulations adopted under subsection (d) of this
section; (4) the device used for such test was checked for accuracy in
accordance with the regulations adopted under subsection (d) of this
section; (5) an additional chemical test of the same type was performed
at least ten minutes after the initial test was performed or, if requested
by the police officer for reasonable cause, an additional chemical test of
a different type was performed, including a test to detect the presence
of a drug or drugs other than or in addition to alcohol, provided the
results of the initial test shall not be inadmissible under this subsection
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if reasonable efforts were made to have such additional test performed
in accordance with the conditions set forth in this subsection and (A)
such additional test was not performed or was not performed within a
reasonable time, or (B) the results of such a dditional test are not
admissible for failure to meet a condition set forth in this subsection;
and (6) evidence is presented that the test was commenced within two
hours of operation. In any prosecution under this section it shall be a
rebuttable presumption that the results of such chemical test establish
the ratio of alcohol in the blood of the defendant at the time of the
alleged offense, except that if the results of the additional test indicate
that the ratio of alcohol in the blood of such defendant is ten-hundredths
of one per cent or less of alcohol, by weight, and is higher than the
results of the first test, evidence shall be presented that demonstrates
that the test results and the analysis thereof accurately indicate the blood
alcohol content at the time of the alleged offense.
Sec. 3. Subsection (a) of section 15-140r of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
(a) Except as provided in section 15 -140s or subsection (d) of this
section, in any criminal prosecution for the violation of section 15-132a,
subsection (d) of section 15-133, section 15-140l or 15-140n or subsection
(b) of section 53-206d, evidence respecting the amount of alcohol or drug
in the defendant's blood or urine at the time of the alleged offense, as
shown by a chemical test of the defendant's breath, blood or urine shall
be admissible and competent provided: (1) The defendant was afforded
a rea sonable opportunity to telephone an attorney prior to the
performance of the test and consented to the taking of the test upon
which such analysis is made; (2) if the chemical test was of the
defendant's breath, a true copy of the report of the [test] result of such
test was mailed to or personally delivered to the defendant within
twenty-four hours or by the end of the next regular business day, after
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such result was known, whichever is later; (3) the test was performed
by or at the direction of a certified law enforcement officer according to
methods and with equipment approved by the Department of
Emergency Services and Public Protection, and if a blo od test was
performed, it was performed on a blood sample taken by a person
licensed to practice medicine and surgery in this state, a qualified
laboratory technician, an emergency medical technician II or a
registered nurse in accordance with the regulati ons adopted under
subsection (b) of this section; (4) the device used for such test was
checked for accuracy in accordance with the regulations adopted under
subsection (b) of this section; (5) an additional chemical test of the same
type was performed at least ten minutes after the initial test was
performed or, if requested by the peace officer for reasonable cause, an
additional chemical test of a different type was performed, including a
test to detect the presence of a drug or drugs other than or in ad dition
to alcohol, except that the results of the initial test shall not be
inadmissible under this subsection if reasonable efforts were made to
have such additional test performed in accordance with the conditions
set forth in this subsection and (A) suc h additional test was not
performed or was not performed within a reasonable time, or (B) the
results of such additional test are not admissible for failure to meet a
condition set forth in this subsection; and (6) evidence is presented that
the test was commenced within two hours of operation of the vessel or
expert testimony establishes the reliability of a test commenced beyond
two hours of operation of the vessel. In any prosecution under this
section, it shall be a rebuttable presumption that the resul ts of such
chemical analysis establish the ratio of alcohol in the blood of the
defendant at the time of the alleged offense, except that if the results of
the additional test indicate that the ratio of alcohol in the blood of such
defendant is ten-hundredths of one per cent or less of alcohol, by weight,
and is higher than the results of the first test, evidence shall be presented
that demonstrates that the test results and the analysis thereof
accurately indicate the blood alcohol content at the time of t he alleged
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offense.
Sec. 4. Subsections (a) to (f), inclusive, of section 54 -102g of the
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) Whenever any person is arrested on or after October 1, 2011, for
the commission of a serious felony and, prior to such arrest, has been
convicted of a felony but has not submitted to the taking of a blood or
other biological sample for DNA (deoxyribonu cleic acid) analysis
pursuant to this section, the law enforcement agency that arrested such
person shall, as available resources allow, require such person to submit
to the taking of a blood or other biological sample for DNA
(deoxyribonucleic acid) analy sis to determine identification
characteristics specific to the person. If the law enforcement agency
requires such person to submit to the taking of such blood or other
biological sample, such person shall submit to the taking of such sample
prior to release from custody and at such time and place as the agency
may specify. For purposes of this subsection, "serious felony" means a
violation of section 53a -70b of the general statutes, revision of 1958,
revised to January 1, 2019, or section 53a-54a, 53a-54b, 53a-54c, 53a-54d,
53a-55, 53a-55a, 53a-56, 53a-56a, 53a-56b, 53a-57, 53a-59, 53a-59a, 53a-60,
53a-60a, 53a-60b, 53a-60c, 53a-70, 53a-70a, 53a-72b, 53a-92, 53a-92a, 53a-
94, 53a-94a, 53a-95, 53a-100aa, 53a-101, 53a-102, 53a-102a, 53a-103a, 53a-
111, 53a-112, 53a-134, 53a-135, 53a-136, 53a-167c, 53a-179b, 53a-179c or
53a-181c.
(b) Any person who has been convicted of a criminal offense against
a victim who is a minor, a nonviolent sexual offense or a sexually violent
offense, as those terms are defined in section 54-250, or a felony, and has
been sentenced on that conviction to the custody of the Commissioner
of Correction, and who has not submitted to the taking of a blood or
other biological sample pursuant to subsection (a) of this section with
respect to such offense, shall, [prior to release from custody ] not later
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than six months after sentencing and at such time as the commissioner
may specify, submit to the taking of a blood or other biological sample
of sufficient quality for DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) analysis to
determine identification characteristics specific to the person. If any
person required to submit to the taking of a blood or other biological
sample pursuant to this subsection refuses to do so, the Commissioner
of Correction or the commissioner's designee shall notify the
Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection within thirty
days of such refusal for the initiation of criminal proceedings against
such person.
(c) Any person who is convicted of a criminal offense against a victim
who is a minor, a nonviolent sexual offense or a sexually violent offense,
as those terms are defined in section 54 -250, or a felony and is not
sentenced to a term of confinement, and who h as not submitted to the
taking of a blood or other biological sample pursuant to subsection (a)
of this section with respect to such offense, shall, as a condition of such
sentence, not later than six months after sentencing and at a time and
place specified by the Court Support Services Division of the Judicial
Department, submit to the taking of a blood or other biological sample
of sufficient quality for DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) analysis to
determine identification characteristics specific to the person.
(d) Any person who has been found not guilty by reason of mental
disease or defect pursuant to section 53a-13 of a criminal offense against
a victim who is a minor, a nonviolent sexual offense or a sexually violent
offense, as those terms are defined in sectio n 54-250, or a felony, and is
in the custody of the Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction
Services or the Commissioner of Developmental Services as a result of
that finding, and who has not submitted to the taking of a blood or other
biological sample pursuant to subsection (a) of this section with respect
to such offense, shall, prior to a court hearing commenced in accordance
with subsection (d) of section 17a -582, and at such time as the
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Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services or the
Commissioner of Developmental Services with whom such person has
been placed may specify, submit to the taking of a blood or other
biological sample of sufficient quality for DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
analysis to determine identification characteristics specific to the person.
(e) Any person who has been convicted of a criminal offense against
a victim who is a minor, a nonviolent sexual offense or a sexually violent
offense, as those terms are defined in section 54 -250, or a felony, and is
serving a period of probation or parole, a nd who has not submitted to
the taking of a blood or other biological sample pursuant to subsection
(a), (b), (c) or (d) of this section, shall, [prior to discharge from] not later
than six months after entering the supervision of the Court Support
Services Division or the custody of the Department of Correction and at
such time as said division or department may specify, submit to the
taking of a blood or other biological sample of sufficient quality for
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) analysis to determin e identification
characteristics specific to the person.
(f) Any person who has been convicted or found not guilty by reason
of mental disease or defect in any other state or jurisdiction of a felony
or of any crime, the essential elements of which are substantially the
same as a criminal offense against a victim who is a minor, a nonviolent
sexual offense or a sexually violent offense, as those terms are defined
in section 54 -250, and is in the custody of the Commissioner of
Correction, is under the supervision of the Judicial Department or the
Board of Pardons and Paroles or is under the jurisdiction of the
Psychiatric Security Review Board, shall, [prior to discharge from ] not
later than six months after entering such custody, supervision or
jurisdiction, submit to the taking of a blood or other biological sample
of sufficient quality for DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) analysis to
determine identification characteristics specific to the person.
Sec. 5. ( Effective July 1, 2026 ) (a) For the purposes of this section,
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"lawfully owed DNA" means a DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) sample
obtained from an offender pursuant to section 54 -102g of the general
statutes, as amended by this act.
(b) The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection
shall conduct a study of lawfully owed DNA. The study shall include
(1) an audit of current DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) collection and
submission practices across local and state law enforcem ent agencies,
the Division of Criminal Justice, the Department of Correction, the
Department of Developmental Services and the Judicial Branch, (2) a
census of individuals from whom DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is
lawfully owed but not collected, an analysi s of systemic barriers to
collection, timelines, interagency coordination and data sharing, (3) a
definition of agency responsibilities at each stage of the criminal justice
process, (4) standard timelines and procedures for the collection and
submission of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid), (5) recommendations for
data tracking and reporting protocols to ensure and facilitate
transparency and compliance, and (6) any information deemed relevant
by the commissioner. Not later than July 1, 2027, the commissioner shall
submit a report on the findings of such study, and any
recommendations, to the joint standing committees of the General
Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public safety and the
judiciary, in accordance with the provisions of section 11 -4a of the
general statutes.
Sec. 6. Subsection (b) of section 7 -294b of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof ( Effective from
passage):
(b) The council shall consist of the following members:
(1) The chief elected official or chief executive officer of a town or city
within the state with a population in excess of fifty thousand, appointed
by the Governor;
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(2) The chief elected official or chief executive officer of a town or city
within the state with a population of fifty thousand or less, appointed
by the Governor;
(3) A member of the faculty of an institution of higher education in
the state who has a background in criminal justice studies, appointed by
the Governor;
(4) A member of the Connecticut Police Chiefs Association who is
holding office or employed as the chief of police, the deputy chief of
police or a senior ranking professional police officer of an organized
police department of a municipality within the state with a population
in excess of one hundred thousand, appointed by the Governor;
(5) A member of the Connecticut Police Chiefs Association who is
holding office or employed as chief of police or the highest ranking
professional police officer of an organized police department of a
municipality within the state with a population in excess o f sixty
thousand but not exceeding one hundred thousand, appointed by the
Governor;
(6) A member of the Connecticut Police Chiefs Association who is
holding office or employed as chief of police or the highest ranking
professional police officer of an organized police department of a
municipality within the state with a population in excess o f thirty-five
thousand but not exceeding sixty thousand, appointed by the Governor;
(7) A sworn municipal police officer from a municipality within the
state with a population exceeding fifty thousand, appointed by the
Governor;
(8) A sworn municipal police officer from a municipality within the
state with a population not exceeding fifty thousand, appointed by the
Governor;
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(9) The [commanding officer ] deputy commissioner of the
[Connecticut] Division of State Police [Academy] within the
Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection, or the deputy
commissioner's designee;
(10) A member of the public, who is a person with a physical
disability or an advocate on behalf of persons with physical disabilities,
appointed by the Governor;
(11) A victim of crime or the immediate family member of a deceased
victim of crime, appointed by the Governor;
(12) A medical professional, appointed by the Governor;
(13) The Chief State's Attorney;
(14) A member of the Connecticut Police Chiefs Association or the
person holding office or employed as chief of police or the highest
ranking professional police officer of an organized police department
within the state, appointed by the speaker of the House of
Representatives;
(15) A member of the Connecticut Police Chiefs Association or the
person holding office or employed as chief of police or the highest
ranking professional police officer of an organized police department
within the state, appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate;
(16) A member of the Connecticut Police Chiefs Association who is
holding office or employed as chief of police or the highest ranking
professional police officer of an organized police department of a
municipality within the state with a population not exceeding thirty-five
thousand, appointed by the minority leader of the Senate;
(17) A member of the public who is a justice -impacted person,
appointed by the majority leader of the House of Representatives;
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(18) A member of the public who is a justice -impacted person,
appointed by the majority leader of the Senate;
(19) A member of the public who is a person with a mental disability
or an advocate on behalf of persons with mental disabilities, appointed
by the minority leader of the House of Representatives;
(20) A sworn police officer who is not in a command position within
such officer's law enforcement unit, who is appointed by the
chairpersons of the joint standing committee of the General Assembly
having cognizance of matters relating to public safety and security; and
(21) A sworn police officer who is not in a command position within
such officer's law enforcement unit, who is appointed by the minority
leader of the Senate and the minority leader of the House of
Representatives.
Sec. 7. Section 29 -4 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) [On and after June 15, 2012, and until July 1, 2013, the
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection shall
appoint and maintain a sufficient number of sworn state police
personnel to efficiently maintain the operation of the Division of State
Police as determined by the commissioner in the commissioner's
judgment.] On and after July 1, 2013, the commissioner shall appoint
and maintain a sufficient number of sworn state police personnel to
efficiently maintain the operation of the division a s determined by the
commissioner. [in accordance with the recommended standards
developed pursuant to subsection (f) of this section. ] Any sworn state
police personnel appointed by the commissioner on or after July 31,
2020, shall be certified by the Police Officer Standards and Training
Council under section 7-294d within one year of appointment.
(b) On or before February first of each odd -numbered year, the
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commissioner shall submit a report to the joint standing committees of
the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public
safety and appropriations and the budgets of state agencies, in
accordance with section 11-4a, providing an assessment of the number
of sworn state police personnel necessary to perform division
operations for the biennium beginning July first of that year. If such
report recommends a staffing level of less than one thousand two
hundred forty -eight sworn state police pe rsonnel, the commissioner
shall include in such report an assessment of the impact to public safety
and any potential negative impact specifically attributable to such
deviation in staffing level.
(c) The commissioner shall appoint from among sworn state police
personnel not more than three lieutenant colonels who shall be in the
unclassified service as provided in section 5 -198. Any permanent
employee in the classified service who accepts appointment t o the
position of lieutenant colonel in the unclassified service may return to
the classified service at such employee's former rank. The commissioner
shall appoint not more than twelve majors who shall be in the classified
service. The position of maj or in the unclassified service shall be
abolished on July 1, 2011. Any permanent employee in the classified
service who accepts appointment to the position of major in the
unclassified service prior to July 1, 2011, may return to the classified
service at such permanent employee's former rank. The commissioner,
subject to the provisions of chapter 67, shall appoint such numbers of
captains, lieutenants, sergeants, detectives and corporals as the
commissioner deems necessary to officer efficiently the state police
force.
(d) The commissioner shall establish such divisions as the
commissioner deems necessary for effective operation of the state police
force and consistent with budgetary allotments, a Criminal Intelligence
Division and a state-wide organized crime investigative task force to be
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engaged throughout the state for the purpose of preventing and
detecting any violation of the criminal law, a Hate Crimes Investigative
Unit for the purposes described in section 29-7d and, for the fiscal years
ending June 30, 2025, and June 30, 2026, an investigative unit within the
Internet Crimes Against Children Task Force, to conduct sting
operations relating to the online sexual abuse of minors for the purposes
described in section 29 -7e. The head of the Criminal Intelligence
Division shall be of the rank of sergeant or above. The head of the Hate
Crimes Investigative Unit shall be of the rank of sergeant or above, and
shall serve as a member of the State -Wide Hate Crimes Advisory
Council, established under section 51 -279f. The head of the state -wide
organized crime investigative task force shall be a police officer. The
head of the Internet Crimes Against Children Task Force, including the
investigative unit conducting sting operations relating to the online
sexual abuse of minors, shall be of the rank of sergeant or above.
(e) Salaries of the members of the Division of State Police within the
Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection shall be fixed
by the Commissioner of Administrative Services as provided in section
4-40. State police personnel may be promoted, dem oted, suspended or
removed by the commissioner, but no final dismissal from the service
shall be ordered until a hearing has been had before the Commissioner
of Emergency Services and Public Protection on charges preferred
against such officer. Each state police officer shall, before entering upon
such officer's duties, be sworn to the faithful performance of such duties.
The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection shall
designate an adequate patrol force for motor patrol work exclusively.
[(f) The Legislative Program Review and Investigations Committee
shall conduct a study to develop recommended standards for use by the
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in
determining the commissioner's proposed level of staffing for the
Division of State Police for purposes of the biennial budget. The
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committee, in developing such recommended standards, shall consider
the following: Technological improvements, federal mandates and
funding, statistical data on rates and types of criminal activity, staffing
of patrol positions, staffing of positions withi n the division and
department that do not require the exercise of police powers, changes in
municipal police policy and staffing and such other criteria as the
committee deems relevant. On or before January 9, 2013, the committee
shall report such recommen ded standards to the joint standing
committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
relating to public safety and shall forward a copy thereof to the
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection.]
Sec. 8. Subsection (b) of section 85 of public act 13 -3, as amended by
section 74 of public act 14 -98, section 67 of public act 15 -1 of the June
special session, section 26 of public act 18 -178, section 74 of public act
20-1, section 62 of public act 21 -111, section 68 of public act 23 -205 and
section 9 of public act 25 -157, is amended to read as follows ( Effective
July 1, 2026):
(b) The proceeds of the sale of said bonds, to the extent of the amount
stated in subsection (a) of this section, shall be used by the Department
of Emergency Services and Public Protection, in consultation with the
Department of Education , for the purpose of the school security
infrastructure competitive grant program, established pursuant to
section 84 of public act 13 -3, as amended by section 15 of public act 13 -
122, section 191 of public act 13-247, section 73 of public act 14-98, section
1 of public act 15-5, section 1 of public act 16-171, section 1 of public act
17-68, section 490 of public act 17 -2 of the June special session, section
73 of public act 20-1, section 1 of public act 25-102 and section 8 of [this
act] public act 25-157, provided not more than five million dollars may
be used by the Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection
for school security projects that involve multimedia interoperable
communications systems.
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Sec. 9. Subsection (b) of section 29 -357 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
(b) The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection
shall adopt reasonable regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, for
the granting of permits for supervised displays of fireworks or for the
indoor use of pyrotechnics, sparklers and fountains for special effects by
municipalities, fair associations, amusement parks, other organizations
or groups of individuals or artisans in pursuit of their trade. Such permit
may be issued upon application to said commissioner and after (1)
inspection of the site of such display or use by the local fire marshal to
determine compliance with the requirements of such regulations, and
(2) approval of the chiefs of the police and fire departments, or, if there
is no police or fire department, of the first selectman, of the municipality
wherein the display is to be held as is provided in this section. No such
display shall be handled or fired by any person until such person has
been granted a certificate of competency by the Commissioner of
Emergency Services and Public Protection. [, in respect to which ] Such
certificate of competency shall be granted upon (A) submission by such
person (i) of evidence of good moral character and competence in the
control and handling of fireworks, and (ii) to state and national criminal
history record checks conducted in accordance with section 29-17a, and
(B) payment of a fee of two hundred dollars [shall be payable] to the
State Treasurer. [when issued and which] Such certificate of competency
may be renewed every three years upo n payment of a fee of one
hundred ninety dollars [payable] to the State Treasurer. [, provided such
certificate may be suspended or revoked by said commissioner at any
time for cause.] Such certificate of competency shall attest to the fact that
such operator is competent to fire a display. No certificate of
competency granted pursuant to this subsection shall be transferable.
The commissioner may suspend or revoke such certificate of
competency at any time for cause. Such display shall be of such a
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character and so located, discharged or fired as in the opinion of the
chiefs of the police and fire departments or such selectman, after proper
inspection, will not be hazardous to property or endanger any person or
persons. In an aerial bomb, no salute, report or maroon may be used that
is composed of a formula of chlorate of potash, sulphur, black needle
antimony and dark aluminum. Formulas that may be used in a salute,
report or maroon are as follows: [(A)] (i) Perchlorate of potash, black
needle antimo ny and dark aluminum, and [(B)] (ii) perchlorate of
potash, dark aluminum and sulphur. No high explosive such as
dynamite, fulminate of mercury or other stimulator for detonating shall
be used in any aerial bomb or other pyrotechnics. Application for
permits shall be made in writing at least fifteen days prior to the date of
display, on such notice as the Commissioner of Emergency Services and
Public Protection by regulation prescribes, on forms furnished by the
commissioner, and a fee of one hundred dollar s shall be payable to the
State Treasurer with each such application. After such permit has been
granted, sales, possession, use and distribution of fireworks for such
display shall be lawful for that purpose only. No permit granted
hereunder shall be transferable. Any permit issued under the provisions
of this section may be suspended or revoked by the Commissioner of
Emergency Services and Public Protection [or the local fire marshal] for
violation by the permittee of any provision of the general statutes , any
regulation or any ordinance relating to fireworks.
Sec. 10. Subsection (c) of section 29 -357a of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1, 2026):
(c) No pyrotechnic or flame producing device for use in a special
effects display shall be handled, discharged or fired by any person
unless under the supervision of a person who has been granted a
certificate of competency for special effects by the Commissio ner of
Emergency Services and Public Protection. [The fee for such certificate
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shall be] Such certificate shall be granted upon (1) submission by such
person (A) of evidence of good moral character and competence in the
control and handling of special effects, and (B) to state and national
criminal history record checks conducted in accordance with section 29-
17a, and (2) payment of a fee of two hundred dollars [, made payable]
to the State Treasurer. Such certificate may be renewed every three years
upon payment of a fee of one hundred ninety dollars to the State
Treasurer. Such certificate shall attest to the fact that such person is
competent to supervise the handling and discharge or firing of such
special effects. No certificate granted pursuant to this subsection shall
be transferable. The commissioner may suspend or revoke such
certificate at any time for cause.
Sec. 11. Subsections (e) to (i), inclusive, of section 29 -38c of the 2026
supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the following is
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(e) Not later than fourteen days after the issuance of a risk protection
order and, if applicable, a warrant under this section, the court for the
geographical area where the person named in the order or warrant
resides shall hold a hearing to determine whether the risk protection
order should continue to apply and whether the firearm or firearms or
other deadly weapon or deadly weapons and any ammunition seized
should be returned to the person named in the warrant or should
continue to be held by the state in accordance with the provisions of
subsections (h) and (i) of this section. At such hearing the state shall have
the burden of proving all material facts by clear and convincing
evidence. If, after such hearing, the court finds by clear and convincing
evidence that the person poses a risk of imminent personal injury to
such person's self or to another person, the court may order (1) that the
risk protection order continue to apply , and (2) that the firearm or
firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly wea pons and any
ammunition seized pursuant to the warrant issued under subsection (a)
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of this section continue to be held by the state until such time that (A)
the court shall terminate such order pursuant to subsection (f) of this
section and order the firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or
deadly weapons and any ammunition seized to be returned as soon as
practicable to the person named in the warrant, provided such person
is otherwise legally able to possess such firearm or firearms or other
deadly weapon or deadly weapons and ammunition, or (B) the firearm
or firearms or other dea dly weapon or deadly weapons and any
ammunition seized are (i) transferred pursuant to subsection (h) of this
section, or (ii) destroyed in accordance with subsection (i) of this section.
If the court finds that the state has failed to prove by clear and
convincing evidence that the petitioner poses a risk of i mminent
personal injury to such person's self or to another person, the court shall
terminate such order and warrant, if applicable, and order the firearm
or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly weapons and any
ammunition seized to be returned as soon as is practicable to the person
named in the warrant, provided such person is otherwise legally eligible
to possess such firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly
weapons and ammunition. If the court finds that the person poses a risk
of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to another person,
the court shall give notice to the Department of Mental Health and
Addiction Services which may take such action pursuant to chapter 319i
as the department deems appropriate.
(f) A risk protection order and warrant, if applicable, shall continue
to apply and the firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly
weapons and any ammunition held pursuant to subsection (e) of this
section shall continue to be held by the state until such time that (1) the
person named in the order and warrant, if applicable, successfully
petitions the court to terminate such order and warrant, if applicable, or
(2) the firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly weapons
and any ammunition seized are (A) transferred pursuant to subsection
(h) of this section, or (B) destroyed in accordance with subsection (i) of
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this section. The person named in the order may first petition the court
of the geographical area where the proceeding was originally conducted
for a hearing to terminate such order and warrant, if applicable, at least
one hundred eighty days after the hearing held pu rsuant to subsection
(e) of this section. Upon the filing of such petition, the court shall [(1)]
(i) provide to the petitioner a hearing date that is on the twenty -eighth
day following the filing of such petition or the business day nearest to
such day if such twenty-eighth day is not a business day, [(2)] (ii) notify
the Division of Criminal Justice of the filing of such petition, and [(3)]
(iii) direct the law enforcement agency for the town in which the
petitioner resides to determine, not later than fourteen days after the
filing of such petition, whether there is probable cause to believe that
the petitioner poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's
self or to another person. No finding of probable cause may be found
solely because the petitioner is subject to an existing risk protection
order or warrant. If the law enforcement agency finds no probable
cause, the agency shall so notify the court which shall cancel the hearing
and terminate the order and warrant, if applicable . If the law
enforcement agency finds probable cause, the agency shall notify the
court of such finding and the hearing shall proceed as scheduled. At
such hearing the state shall have the burden of proving all material facts
by clear and convincing eviden ce. If the court, following such hearing,
finds by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner poses a risk
of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to another person,
the order and warrant, if applicable, shall remain in effect. If the c ourt
finds that the state has failed to prove by clear and convincing evidence
that the petitioner poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such
person's self or to another person, the court shall terminate such order
and warrant, if applicable. Any person whose petition is denied may file
a subsequent petition in accordance with the provisions of this
subsection at least one hundred eighty days after the date on which the
court denied the previous petition.
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(g) The court shall immediately upon termination of a risk protection
order pursuant to this section remove or cancel any record entered into
the National Instant Criminal Background Check System associated
with such order.
(h) Any person whose firearm or firearms and ammunition have been
ordered seized pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, or such
person's legal representative, may transfer such firearm or firearms and
ammunition in accordance with the provisions of section 29-33 or other
applicable state or federal law, to a federally licensed firearm dealer .
Upon notification in writing by such person, or such person's legal
representative, and the dealer, the head of the state agency holding such
seized firearm or firearms and ammunition shall within ten days deliver
such firearm or firearms and ammunition to the dealer.
(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 29 -36k, the
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection holding
any firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly weapons and
any ammunition seized pursuant to a warrant issued under this section,
or any local police department holding on behalf of said commissioner
any such firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly weapons
or ammunition, shall not destroy any such firearm or other deadly
weapon or ammunition until at least [one ye ar has ] two years have
passed since date of the [termination of a warrant under ] hearing held
pursuant to subsection (e) of this section. Not later than ninety days
prior to such destruction, the commissioner or any such local police
department shall notify, in writing, the person whose firearm, other
deadly weapon or ammunition was seized pursuant to a warrant issued
under this section of the date of such destruction.
Sec. 12. Section 29-161q of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective
October 1, 2026):
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(a) Any security service or business may employ as many security
officers as such security service or business deems necessary for the
conduct of the business, provided such security officers are of good
moral character and at least eighteen years of age.
(b) (1) No person hired or otherwise engaged to perform work as a
security officer, as defined in section 29 -152u, shall perform the duties
of a security officer prior to being licensed as a security officer by the
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Pro tection, except as
provided in subsection (h) of this section. Each applicant for a license
shall complete a minimum of eight hours training in the following areas:
Basic first aid, state search and seizure laws and regulations, use of force,
basic criminal justice and public safety issues. If an applicant for a
license intends to carry a less lethal weapon while on duty as a security
officer, such applicant shall complete additional training on how to use
such less lethal weapon lawfully and in acc ordance with the
recommendations of the manufacturer of such less lethal weapon. The
commissioner shall waive any such training required by this subsection
for (A) any person who is currently employed as, or separated from
service in good standing within the preceding two years as, a correction
officer for the Department of Correction, a parole officer for the
Department of Correction or a judicial marshal for the Judicial Branch,
and presents proof that such person has completed training that is
equivalent to the training required by this subsection, (B) any person
who is separated from service in good standing within the preceding
two years as a police officer, is not prohibited from being hired by a law
enforcement unit pursuant to section 7 -291c and pres ents proof that
such person has completed training that is equivalent to the training
required by this subsection, and (C) any person who, while serving in
the armed forces or the National Guard, or if such person is a veteran,
within two years of such person's discharge from the armed forces,
presents proof that such person has completed military training that is
equivalent to the training required by this subsection, and, if applicable,
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such person's military discharge document or a certified copy thereof.
The training shall be approved by the commissioner in accordance with
regulations adopted pursuant to section 29 -161x. The commissioner
may not grant a license to any person who has bee n decertified as a
police officer or otherwise had his or her certification canceled, revoked
or refused renewal pursuant to subsection (c) of section 7-294d or under
the laws of any other jurisdiction. For the purposes of this subsection,
"veteran" and "a rmed forces" have the same meanings as provided in
section 27-103, "military discharge document" has the same meaning as
provided in section 1 -219, and "less lethal weapon" means a baton or
oleoresin capsicum spray, commonly referred to as "O.C. spray" or
"pepper spray".
[(1)] (2) No person or employee of an association, corporation or
partnership shall conduct such training without the approval of the
commissioner. Application for such approval shall be submitted on
forms prescribed by the commissioner and accompanied by a fee of
forty dollars. Such application shall be made under oath and shall
contain the applicant's name, address, date and place of birth,
employment for the previous five years, education or training in the
subjects required to be taught under this subsection, any convictions for
violations of the law and such other information as the commissioner
may require by regulation adopted pursuant to section 29 -161x to
properly investigate the character, competency and integrity of the
applicant. No person shall be approved as an instructor for such training
who has been convicted of a felony, a sexual offense or a crime of moral
turpitude or who has been denied approval as a security service
licensee, a security officer or instructor in the security industry by a ny
licensing authority, or whose approval has been revoked or suspended.
The term for such approval shall not exceed two years. Not later than
two business days after a change of address, any person approved as an
instructor in accordance with this section shall notify the commissioner
of such change and such notification shall include both the old and new
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addresses.
[(2)] (3) Each person approved as an instructor in accordance with
this section may apply for the renewal of such approval on a form
approved by the commissioner, accompanied by a fee of forty dollars.
Such form may require the disclosure of any information necessar y for
the commissioner to determine whether the instructor's suitability to
serve as an instructor has changed since the issuance of the prior
approval. The term of such renewed approval shall not exceed two
years.
(c) Not later than two years after successful completion of the training
required pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, or the waiver of such
training, the applicant may submit an application for a license as a
security officer on forms furnished by the commissioner and, under
oath, shall give the applicant's name, address, date and place of birth,
employment for the previous five years, experience in the position
applied for, including military training and weapons qualifications, any
convictions for violations of the law and such other information as the
commissioner may require, by regulation, to properly investigate the
character, competency and integrity of the applicant. The commissioner
shall require any applicant for a license, or for renewal o f a license,
under this section to submit to state and national criminal history
records checks conducted in accordance with section 29 -17a, provided
an applicant for renewal of a license shall not be charged any fingerprint
search or fingerprinting fee pu rsuant to subsection (c) of section 29 -11
for such records checks. Each applicant for a license, or for renewal of a
license, shall submit with the application (1) two sets of his or her
fingerprints on forms specified and furnished by the commissioner, (2 )
two full-face photographs, two inches wide by two inches high, taken
not earlier than six months prior to the date of application, and (3) a one-
hundred-dollar licensing fee or licensing renewal fee, made payable to
the state. Any applicant who is a member or veteran of the armed forces
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or the National Guard and received a waiver as provided in subdivision
(1) of subsection (b) of this section shall be exempt from payment of such
licensing fee. Subject to the provisions of section 46a-80, no person shall
be approved for a license who has been convicted of a felony, any sexual
offense or any crime involving moral t urpitude, or who has been
refused a license under the provisions of sections 29 -161g to 29 -161x,
inclusive, for any reason except minimum experience, or whose license,
having been granted, has been revoked or is under suspension. Upon
being satisfied of the suitability of the applicant for licensure, the
commissioner may license the applicant as a security officer. Such
license shall be renewed every five years. The commissioner sh all send
a notice of the expiration date of such license to the holder of such
license, by first class mail or electronic mail, not less than ninety days
before such expiration, and shall include with such notice an application
for renewal. The holder of such license may elect to receive such notice
by first class mail or electronic mail. The security officer license shall be
valid for a period of ninety days after its expiration date unless the
license has been revoked or is under suspension pursuant to section 29-
161v. An application for renewal filed with the commissioner after the
expiration date shall be accompanied by a late fee of twenty-five dollars.
The commissioner shall not renew any license that has been expired for
more than ninety days.
(d) Upon the security officer's successful completion of training and
licensing by the commissioner, or immediately upon hiring a licensed
security officer, the security service employing such security officer
shall apply to register such security officer with the commissioner on
forms provided by the commissioner. Such application shall be
accompanied by payment of a forty-dollar application fee payable to the
state. The Division of State Police within the Department of Emergency
Services and Public Protec tion shall keep on file the completed
registration form and all related material. An identification card with
the name, date of birth, address, full -face photograph, physical
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descriptors and signature of the applicant shall be issued to the security
officer, and shall be carried by the security officer at all times while
performing the duties associated with the security officer's employment.
Registered security officers, in th e course of performing their duties,
shall present such card for inspection upon the request of a law
enforcement officer.
(e) The security service shall notify the commissioner not later than
five days after the termination of employment of any registered
employee.
(f) Any fee or portion of a fee paid pursuant to this section shall not
be refundable.
(g) No person, firm or corporation shall employ or otherwise engage
any person as a security officer, as defined in section 29 -152u, unless
such person (1) is a licensed security officer, or (2) meets the
requirements of subsection (h) of this section.
(h) During the time that an application for a license as a security
officer is pending with the commissioner, the applicant may perform the
duties of security officer, provided (1) the security service employing
the applicant [conducts, or has] conducted, or had a consumer reporting
agency regulated under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act conduct,
a state and national criminal history records check and [determines]
determined the applicant meets the requirements of subsection (c) of
this section to be a security officer, (2) the applicant successfully
completed the training required pursuant to subsection (b) of this
section, or obtained a waiver of such training, and (3) the applicant has
not been decertified as a police officer or otherwise had his or her
certification canceled, revoked or refused renewal pursuant to
subsection (c) of section 7 -294d or under the laws of any other
jurisdiction. If the commissioner notifies the applicant, or, if the
application was submitted by a security service employin g the
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applicant, such security service, that the application is incomplete, the
applicant or security service, as applicable, shall submit a completed
application not later than ten calendar days after the date of such
notification. If, upon receiving such appli cation, the commissioner
determines that such application is still incomplete, the commissioner
may, in the commissioner's discretion, deny the application. The
applicant shall not perform such duties at a public or private preschool,
elementary or seconda ry school or at a facility licensed and used
exclusively as a child care center, as described in subdivision (1) of
subsection (a) of section 19a -77. The applicant shall cease to perform
such duties pursuant to this subsection when the commissioner grants
or denies the pending application for a security license under this
section.
(i) Any person, firm or corporation that violates any provision of
subsection (b), (d), (e), (g) or (h) of this section shall be fined seventy -
five dollars for each offense. Each distinct violation of this section shall
be a separate offense and, in the case of a continuing violation, each day
thereof shall be deemed a separate offense.
Sec. 13. Section 29 -152m of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) No professional bondsman licensed under chapter 533, surety bail
bond agent licensed under chapter 700f or bail enforcement agent
licensed under sections 29-152f to 29-152i, inclusive, shall carry a pistol,
revolver, [or] other firearm or electronic defense weapon while
engaging in the business of a professional bondsman, surety bail bond
agent or bail enforcement agent, as the case may be, or while traveling
to or from such business unless such bondsman or agent obtains a
special permit from the Commissioner of Em ergency Services and
Public Protection in accordance with the provisions of subsection (b) of
this section. The permit required under this section shall be in addition
to the permit requirement imposed under section 29-28 and shall not be
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issued until the applicant has been issued a permit under section 29-28.
(b) (1) The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public
Protection may grant to any professional bondsman licensed under
chapter 533, surety bail bond agent licensed under chapter 700f or bail
enforcement agent licensed under sections 29-152f to 29-152i, inclusive,
a permit to carry a pistol or revolver or other firearm while engaging in
the business of a professional bondsman, surety bail bond agent or bail
enforcement agent, as the case may be, or while traveling to or from such
business, provided [that] such bondsman or agent has proven to the
satisfaction of the commissioner that such bondsman or agent has
successfully completed a course, approved by the commissioner, of
training in the safety and use of firearms.
(2) The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection
may grant to any professional bondsman licensed under chapter 533,
surety bail bond agent licensed under chapter 700f or bail enforcement
agent licensed under sections 29 -152f to 29 -152i, inclusive, a permit to
carry an electronic defense weapon while engaging in the business of a
professional bondsman, surety bail bond agent or bail enforcement
agent, as the case may be, or while traveling to or from such business,
provided such bondsman or a gent has proven to the satisfaction of the
commissioner that such bondsman or agent has successfully completed
a course, approved by the commissioner, of training in the safety and
use of electronic defense weapons.
(c) An application for a permit pursuant to this section shall be made
on forms provided by the commissioner and shall be accompanied by a
fee of sixty-two dollars. Such permit shall have an expiration date that
coincides with that of the state permit to carry a pistol or revolver issued
pursuant to section 29-28.
(d) A permit issued pursuant to this section shall be renewable every
five years with a renewal fee of sixty-two dollars. [Each] As a condition
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of such renewal, each holder of a permit issued pursuant to this section
shall successfully complete an annual firearms or electronic defense
weapons safety refresher course, as applicable, that is approved by the
commissioner. [as a condition of such renewal.] The commissioner shall
send, by first class mail, a notice of expiration of the bail enforcement
agent firearms or electronic defense weapons permit issued pursuant to
this section, as applicable, together with a notice of expiration of the
permit to carry a pistol or revolver issued pursuant to section 29 -28, in
one combined form. The commissioner shall send such combined notice
to the holder of the permits not later than ninety days before the date of
the expiration of both permits, and shall enclos e a form for renewal of
the permits. A bail enforcement agent firearms or electronic defense
weapons permit issued pursuant to this section , as applicable, shall be
valid for a period of ninety days after the expiration date, except this
provision shall not apply if the permit to carry a pistol or revolver has
been revoked or revocation is pending pursuant to section 29 -32, in
which case the bail enforcement agent firearms or electronic defense
weapons permit, as applicable, shall also be revoked.
(e) The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with the
provisions of chapter 54 concerning the approval of schools, institutions
or organizations offering firearms or electronic defense weapons safety
courses, the requirements for instructors and the required number of
hours and content of such courses.
Sec. 14. Section 19a-421 of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective
October 1, 2026):
(a) No person shall establish, conduct or maintain a youth camp
without a license issued by the office. Applications for such license shall
be made in writing at least thirty days prior to the opening of the youth
camp on forms provided and in accordance with procedures established
by the commissioner and shall be accompanied by a fee of eight
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hundred fifteen dollars or, if the applicant is a nonprofit, nonstock
corporation or association, a fee of three hundred fifteen dollars or, if
the applicant is a day camp affiliated with a nonprofit organization, for
no more than five days duration and fo r which labor and materials are
donated, no fee. All such licenses shall be valid for a period of one year
from the date of issuance unless surrendered for cancellation or
suspended or revoked by the commissioner for violation of this chapter
or any regula tions adopted under section 19a -428, shall be
nontransferable and shall be renewable upon receipt by the
commissioner of a renewal application and payment of an eight -
hundred-fifteen-dollar license fee or, if the licensee is a nonprofit,
nonstock corporati on or association, a three -hundred-fifteen-dollar
license fee or, if the applicant is a day camp affiliated with a nonprofit
organization, for no more than five days duration and for which labor
and materials are donated, no fee.
(b) On and after October 1, 2022, any licensee shall require any
prospective employee eighteen years of age or older, who is applying
for a position at a youth camp that requires the provision of care to a
child or involves unsupervised access to a child, to s ubmit to a
comprehensive background check. The background check shall include,
but not be limited to, a (1) (A) criminal history records check conducted
(i) in accordance with section 29 -17a, or (ii) by searching the electronic
criminal record system maint ained on the Internet web site of the
Judicial Department for convictions matching the prospective
employee's name and date of birth, (B) state child abuse registry
established pursuant to section 17a -101k, (C) registry established and
maintained pursuant to section 54 -257, and (D) National Sex Offender
Registry Public Website maintained by the United States Department of
Justice, or (2) check by a third -party provider of national criminal
history record checks that is conducted through a centralized databa se
utilizing the prospective employee's fingerprints, provided such
provider appears on a list of such providers published on the Internet
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web site of the Office of Early Childhood. Prior to each check of the state
child abuse registry conducted pursuant to this subsection, a licensee
shall submit to the office an authorization for the release of personal
information signed by the prospective employee, on a form prescribed
by the office, and the office shall submit such authorization to the
Department of Children and Families. Any prospective employee who
holds a J -1 visa, H -1B visa or R -1 visa issued by the United States
Department of State s hall not be required to submit to a background
check under this section.
(c) Pending completion of all comprehensive background check
components described in subsection (b) of this section, a prospective
employee may begin work on a provisional basis, provided such
prospective employee is supervised at all times by an employee who
was subjected to a comprehensive background check described in
subsection (b) of this section within the past five years.
(d) Each licensee shall require any employee of a youth camp holding
a position that requires the provision of care to a child or involves
unsupervised access to a child to submit to a comprehensive
background check described in subsection (b) of this section not later
than five years after the date such employee was hired, and at least once
every five years thereafter. Nothing in this section prohibits a licensee
from requiring any such employee to submit to a comprehensive
background check more than once during a five-year period.
(e) The Commissioner of Early Childhood shall have the discretion to
refuse to license under sections 19a -420 to 19a -429, inclusive, a person
to establish, conduct or maintain a youth camp, as described in section
19a-420, or to suspend or revoke the license or take any other action set
forth in any regulation adopted pursuant to section 19a -428 if, the
person who establishes, conducts or maintains such youth camp or a
person employed therein in a position connected with the provision of
care to a child or involving unsupervised access to a child, has (1) been
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convicted in this state or any other state of (A) a felony as defined in
section 53a -25 involving the use, attempted use or threatened use of
physical force against another person, (B) cruelty to persons under
section 53 -20, (C) injury or risk of injury to or impairing morals of
children under section 53 -21, (D) abandonment of children under the
age of six years under section 53 -23, (E) any felony where the victim of
the felony is a child under eighteen years of age, or (F) a violation of
section 53a -70b of the general statutes, revision of 1958, revised to
January 1, 2019, 53a-70, 53a-70a, 53a-71, 53a-72a, 53a-72b or 53a-73a, (2)
a criminal record in this state or any other state that the commissioner
reasonably believes renders the person unsuitable to est ablish, conduct
or maintain or be employed by a youth camp, or (3) held a license to
establish, conduct or maintain a youth camp in another state that was
revoked by such state's licensing authority. However, no refusal of a
license shall be rendered excep t in accordance with the provisions of
sections 46a-79 to 46a-81, inclusive.
(f) Any person who is licensed to establish, operate or maintain a
youth camp shall notify the Commissioner of Early Childhood if such
licensee or any person employed by such youth camp is convicted of a
crime listed in subsection (e) of this section, if such licensee or person
employed by such youth camp is employed in a position connected with
the provision of care to a child or involving unsupervised access to a
child, immediately upon obtaining knowledge of the conviction. Failure
to comply with the not ification requirement may result in the
suspension or revocation of the license or the imposition of any action
set forth in regulation, and shall subject the licensee to a civil penalty of
not more than one hundred dollars per day for each day after the
licensee obtained knowledge of the conviction, provided such civil
penalty shall not exceed the aggregate sum of four thousand five
hundred dollars.
(g) Each licensee shall maintain, and make available for inspection
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upon request of the Office of Early Childhood, any documentation
associated with a comprehensive background check described in
subsection (b) of this section, for a period of not less than five years from
the date of (1) completion of such background check, if the subject of the
comprehensive background check was not hired by the licensee, or (2)
separation from employment, if the subject of the comprehensive
background check was hired by the licensee.
(h) Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 368r, the Connecticut
Wing Civil Air Patrol within the Department of Emergency Services and
Public Protection may establish, conduct or maintain a youth camp
without obtaining a license issued by the office, pr ovided the
Connecticut Wing Civil Air Patrol (1) establishes, conducts or maintains
any such youth camp on property owned or leased by the state and
utilizes a facility operated exclusively by the Military Department or the
armed forces of the United State s in accordance with Title 10 of the
United States Code, and (2) complies with the guidelines set forth in the
Civil Air Patrol pamphlet entitled "CAPP 79 -10 Cadet Medication
Management", as amended from time to time, during any overnight
youth camp.
Sec. 15. Subsection (a) of section 29-6d of the 2026 supplement to the
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) For purposes of this section and section 7-277b:
(1) "Law enforcement unit" has the same meaning as provided in
section 7-294a;
(2) "Police officer" means a sworn member of a law enforcement unit
or any member of a law enforcement unit who performs police duties;
(3) "Body-worn recording equipment" means an electronic recording
device that is capable of recording audio and video;
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(4) "Dashboard camera" means a dashboard camera with a remote
recorder, as defined in section 7-277b;
(5) "Digital data storage device or service" means a device or service
that retains the data from the recordings made by body-worn recording
equipment using computer data storage; and
(6) "Police patrol vehicle" means any state or local police vehicle .
[other than] "Police patrol vehicle" does not include an administrative
vehicle in which an occupant is wearing body-worn camera equipment,
a bicycle, a motor scooter, an all -terrain vehicle, an electric personal
assistive mobility device, as defined in subsection (a) of section 14-289h,
or an animal control vehicle.
Sec. 16. Section 28 -1 of the general statutes is amended by adding
subdivision (13) as follows (Effective July 1, 2026):
(NEW) (13) "Targeted violence" means a premeditated act of violence
that is (A) directed at an individual, group of individuals, event or
location, irrespective of the motivation for such act, and (B) typically not
undertaken in furtherance of, or in conne ction with, other criminal
activity.
Sec. 17. Subsection (b) of section 28 -5 of the 2026 supplement to the
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
thereof (Effective July 1, 2026):
(b) The commissioner shall (1) direct the preparation of a
comprehensive state civil preparedness plan and program, [for the civil
preparedness of the state ] and (2) integrate and coordinate [that] the
plan and program , to the fullest extent possible , with the civil
preparedness plans of the federal government and [of] other states. Any
plan and program prepared on or after July 1, 2027, shall include
provisions concerning targeted violence and terrorism prevention.
When the plan and program has been prepared, the commissioner shall
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present it to the Governor for his or her approval. When the Governor
approves the plan, all government agencies, state or local, all civil
preparedness forces in the state and all public service companies, as
defined in section 16-1, shall carry out the duties and functions assigned
by the plan and program as approved. The plan and program may, from
time to time, be amended or modified in like manner. The commissioner
shall coordinate the civil preparedness activities of the towns and cities
of the state t o the end that they shall be fully integrated with the state
civil preparedness plan and program.
Sec. 18. Subsection (a) of section 28 -7 of the general statutes is
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1,
2026):
(a) (1) Each town or city of the state shall establish a local organization
for civil preparedness in accordance with the state civil preparedness
plan and program, provided any two or more towns or cities may, with
the approval of the commissioner, establish a joint organization for civil
preparedness. The authority of such local or joint organization for civil
preparedness shall not supersede that of any regularly organized police
or fire department. In order to be eligible for any state or federal benefits
under this chapter, [not later than January 1, 2017, and biennially
thereafter,] each town or city of the state shall [have a current] biennially
submit, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, an
emergency plan of operations [that has been approved by ] to the
commissioner and receive the approval of the commissioner. [The] Prior
to submitting each such plan to the commissioner, such plan shall be
[submitted to the commissioner after it has been] approved by the local
emergency management director and the local chief executive. Such
plan may be submitted with a notice stating that the plan remains
unchanged from the previously submitted version.
(2) The emergency plan of operations of every town or city situated
on the shoreline of the state shall contain provisions addressing an
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emergency caused by any existing liquefied natural gas terminal located
on the Long Island Sound and every town or city situated on the
shoreline of the state shall submit such plan to the joint standing
committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
relating to public safety and security, in accordance with the provisions
of section 11 -4a, and the commissioner to obtain approval. The
committee shall hold a public hearing regarding such plan not later than
thirty days after receiving the pla n. Not later than five days after the
hearing, the committee shall [(1)] (A) hold a roll-call vote to approve or
reject the plan, and [(2)] (B) forward the plan and a record of the
committee's vote to the General Assembly. [Such]
(3) The commissioner shall not approve an emergency plan of
operations [shall not be approved by the commissioner ] submitted
pursuant to the provisions of this subsection unless the commissioner
determines that the plan proposes strategies that address all the
activities and measures of civil preparedness. [identified in subdivision
(4) of section 28-1, including, for any plan submitted on or after January
1, 2025, a domestic terrorism prevention strategy, as described in a
domestic terrorism prevention pla n annex, in accordance with any
standards provided by the Division of Emergency Management and
Homeland Security within the Department of Emergency Services and
Public Protection.] Each town or city of the state [shall consider whether
to] may include in such plan provisions for (A) the nonmilitary
evacuation of livestock, horses, pets and service animals, [and] (B) the
temporary sheltering of pets, service animals and animals trained to
assist first responders , and (C) targeted violence and terrorism
prevention.
Sec. 19. Section 29-1mm of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July
1, 2026):
(a) The Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection, in
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consultation with the Police Officer Standards and Training Council,
shall establish a police training center to train and educate police officers
in crime scene processing, the collection and analysis of forensic
evidence and criminal investigations. The center shall be located at
[Central Connecticut State University] an institution of higher education
within the Connecticut State Colleges and Universities. For purposes of
this section, "police officer" has the same meaning as provided in section
7-294a.
(b) Not later than January 1, [2026] 2027, the Commissioner of
Emergency Services and Public Protection shall enter into a
memorandum of understanding with [Central Connecticut State
University] such institution of higher education for the purpose of
establishing the police training center. Such memorandum shall include,
but need not be limited to, a requirement that any use of funding for the
center for a purpose other than providing training or education to a
police officer shall require the commissioner's written authorization.