AN ACT CONCERNING VARIOUS CRIMINAL LAW AND CRIMINAL JUSTICE PROPOSALS, CERTIFICATES OF APPROVAL FOR AIRPORTS, HELIPORTS, VERTIPORTS, RESTRICTED LANDING AREAS AND OTHER AIR NAVIGATION FACILITIES, POLICE COLLABORATION WITH SOCIAL WORKERS, SURVEILLANCE PRICING, EDUCATION COST SHARING AND WITHHOLDING OF TAXES FROM LUMP SUM PAYMENTS.

House Bill No. 5563

Public Act No. 26-130

AN ACT CONCERNING VARIOUS CRIMINAL LAW AND CRIMINAL
JUSTICE PROPOSALS, CERTIFICATES OF APPROVAL FOR
AIRPORTS, HELIPORTS, VERTIPORTS, RESTRICTED LANDING
AREAS AND OTHER AIR NAVIGATION FACILITIES, POLICE
COLLABORATION WITH SOCIAL WORKERS, SURVEILLANCE
PRICING, EDUCATION COST SHARING AND WITHHOLDING OF
TAXES FROM LUMP SUM PAYMENTS.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General
Assembly convened:

Section 1. Section 53 -142k of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) As used in this section:
(1) "Retail property" means any new article, product, commodity,
item or component intended to be sold in retail commerce;
(2) "Value" means the retail value of an item as advertised by the
affected retail establishment, including applicable taxes; and
(3) "Retail property fence" means a person who buys retail property
when such person knows or should know the property is stolen and
with the intent to unlawfully distribute the property or to promote,
manage, carry on or facilitate a violation of subsection (b) of this section.
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(b) Any person who, for financial gain and in conjunction with one or
more other persons, commits larceny by shoplifting, as defined in
section 53a -119, as amended by this act , of retail property having an
aggregate value exceeding two thousand dollars and (1) wrongfully
takes such property during a period of [one hundred eighty ] three
hundred sixty-five days, or (2) sells, delivers or otherwise transfers such
property to a retail property fence, shall have committed the offense of
organized retail theft.
(c) Any person who receives, possesses, conceals, stores, barters, sells
or disposes of any retail property acquired in violation of subsection (b)
of this section, including through the use of an online platform, Internet
web site or electronic device, with the intent to distribute the proceeds
or otherwise promote, manage, carry on or facilitate a violation of said
subsection, shall have committed the offense of accessory to organized
retail theft.
(d) It shall not be a defense to a charge of accessory to organized retail
theft in violation of subsection (c) of this section that the retail property
was obtained by means other than through a violation of said subsection
if the property was explicitly repr esented to the person charged under
said subsection (c) as being obtained through the commission of
organized retail theft.
(e) Any person who violates subsection (b) or (c) of this section shall
be guilty of a class D felony, except that, if such person derives a
financial benefit of ten thousand dollars or more as a result of such
violation, such person shall be guilty of a class C felony.
Sec. 2. Section 53a -119 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
A person commits larceny when, with intent to deprive another of
property or to appropriate the same to [himself] such person or a third
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person, [he] such person wrongfully takes, obtains or withholds such
property from an owner. Larceny includes, but is not limited to:
(1) Embezzlement. A person commits embezzlement when [he] such
person wrongfully appropriates to [himself] such person's self or to
another property of another in [his] such person's care or custody.
(2) Obtaining property by false pretenses. A person obtains property
by false pretenses when, by any false token, pretense or device, [he] such
person obtains from another any property, with intent to defraud [him]
such other person or any other person.
(3) Obtaining property by false promise. A person obtains property
by false promise when, pursuant to a scheme to defraud, [he] such
person obtains property of another by means of a representation,
express or implied, that [he] such person or a third person will in the
future engage in particular conduct, and when [he] such person does
not intend to engage in such conduct or does not believe that the third
person intends to engage in such conduct. In any prosecution for larceny
based upon a false promise, the defendant's intention or belief that the
promise would not be performed may not be established by or inferred
from the fact alone that such promise was not performed.
(4) Acquiring property lost, mislaid or delivered by mistake. A
person who comes into control of property of another that [he] such
person knows to have been lost, mislaid, or delivered under a mistake
as to the nature or amount of the property or the identity of the recipient
is guilty of larceny if, with purpose to deprive the owner thereof, [he]
such person fails to take reasonable measures to restore the property to
a person entitled to it.
(5) Extortion. A person obtains property by extortion when [he] an
actor compels or induces another person to deliver such property to
[himself] such actor or a third person by means of instilling in [him] the
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other person a fear that, if the property is not so delivered, the actor or
another will: (A) Cause physical injury to some person in the future; or
(B) cause damage to property; or (C) engage in other conduct
constituting a crime; or (D) accuse some person of a crime or cause
criminal charges to be instituted against [him] such person; or (E) expose
a secret or publicize an asserted fact, whether true or false, tending to
subject some person to hatred, contempt or ridicule; or (F) cause a strike,
boycott or other collective labor group action injurious to some person's
business; except that such a threat shall not be deemed extortion when
the property is demanded or received for the benefit of the group in
whose interest the actor purports to act; or (G) te stify or provide
information or withhold testimony or information with respect to
another's legal claim or defense; or (H) use or abuse [his] the actor's
position as a public servant by performing some act within or related to
[his] the actor's official duties, or by failing or refusing to perform an
official duty, in such manner as to affect some person adversely; or (I)
inflict any other harm which would not benefit the actor.
(6) Defrauding of public community. A person is guilty of defrauding
a public community who (A) authorizes, certifies, attests or files a claim
for benefits or reimbursement from a local, state or federal agency which
[he] such person knows is false; or (B) knowingly accepts the benefits
from a claim [he] such person knows is false; or (C) as an officer or agent
of any public community, with intent to prejudice it, appropriates its
property to the use of any person or draws any order upon its treasury
or pr esents or aids in procuring to be allowed any fraudulent claim
against such community. For purposes of this subdivision such order or
claim shall be deemed to be property.
(7) Theft of services. A person is guilty of theft of services when: (A)
With intent to avoid payment for restaurant services rendered, or for
services rendered to [him] such person as a transient guest at a hotel,
motel, inn, tourist cabin, rooming house or comparable establishment,
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[he] such person avoids such payment by unjustifiable failure or refusal
to pay, by stealth, or by any misrepresentation of fact which [he] such
person knows to be false; or (B) (i) except as provided in section 13b-38i,
with intent to obtain railroad, subway, bus, air, taxi or any other public
transportation service without payment of the lawful charge therefor or
to avoid payment of the lawful charge f or such transportation service
which has been rendered to [him, he] such person who obtains such
service or avoids payment therefor by force, intimidation, stealth,
deception or mechanical tampering, or by unjustifiable failure or refusal
to pay, or (ii) with intent to obtain the use of equipment, including a
motor vehicle, without payment of the lawful charge therefor, or to
avoid payment of the lawful charge for such use which has been
permitted [him, he] such person who obtains such use or avoids such
payment therefor by means of any false or fraudulent representation,
fraudulent concealment, false pretense or personation, trick, artifice or
device, including, but not limited to, a false representation as to [his]
such person's name, residence, empl oyment, or driver's license; or (C)
obtaining or having control over labor in the employ of another person,
or of business, commercial or industrial equipment or facilities of
another person, knowing that [he] the actor is not entitled to the use
thereof, and with intent to derive a commercial or other substantial
benefit for [himself] the actor or a third person, [he] the actor uses or
diverts to the use of [himself] such actor or a third person such labor,
equipment or facilities.
(8) Receiving stolen property. A person is guilty of larceny by
receiving stolen property if [he] such person receives, retains, or
disposes of stolen property knowing that it has probably been stolen or
believing that it has probably been stolen, unless the property is
received, retained or disposed of with purpose to restore it to the owner.
A person who accept s or receives the use or benefit of a public utility
commodity which customarily passes through a meter, knowing such
commodity (A) has been diverted therefrom, (B) has not been correctly
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registered, or (C) has not been registered at all by a meter, is guilty of
larceny by receiving stolen property.
(9) Shoplifting. A person is guilty of shoplifting who intentionally
takes possession of any goods, wares or merchandise offered or exposed
for sale by any store or other mercantile establishment with the intention
of converting the same to [his] such person's own use, without paying
the purchase price thereof. A person intentionally concealing
unpurchased goods or merchandise of any store or other mercantile
establishment, either on the premises or outside the premises of such
store, shall be prima facie p resumed to have so concealed such article
with the intention of converting the same to [his] such person's own use
without paying the purchase price thereof.
(10) Conversion of a motor vehicle. A person is guilty of conversion
of a motor vehicle who, after renting or leasing a motor vehicle under
an agreement in writing which provides for the return of such vehicle
to a particular place at a particular time, fails t o return the vehicle to
such place within the time specified, and who thereafter fails to return
such vehicle to the agreed place or to any other place of business of the
lessor within one hundred twenty hours after the lessor shall have sent
a written demand to [him] such person for the return of the vehicle by
registered mail addressed to [him at his ] such person at such person's
address as shown in the written agreement or, in the absence of such
address, to [his] such person's last-known address as recorded in the
records of the motor vehicle department of the state in which [he] such
person is licensed to operate a motor vehicle. It shall be a complete
defense to any civil action arising out of or involving the arrest or
detention of any person to whom such demand was sent by registered
mail that [he] such person failed to return the vehicle to any place of
business of the lesso r within one hundred twenty hours after the
mailing of such demand.
(11) Obtaining property through fraudulent use of an automated
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teller machine. A person obtains property through fraudulent use of an
automated teller machine when such person obtains property by
knowingly using in a fraudulent manner an automated teller machine
with intent to deprive another of property or to appropriate the same to
[himself] such person or a third person. In any prosecution for larceny
based upon fraudulent use of an automated teller machine, the crime
shall be deemed to have been committed in the town in which the
machine was located. In any prosecu tion for larceny based upon more
than one instance of fraudulent use of an automated teller machine, (A)
all such instances in any six -month period may be combined and
charged as one offense, with the value of all property obtained thereby
being accumulate d, and (B) the crime shall be deemed to have been
committed in any of the towns in which a machine which was
fraudulently used was located. For the purposes of this subsection,
"automated teller machine" means an unmanned device at which
banking transactio ns including, without limitation, deposits,
withdrawals, advances, payments and transfers may be conducted, and
includes, without limitation, a satellite device and point of sale terminal
as defined in section 36a-2.
(12) Library theft. A person is guilty of library theft when (A) [he]
such person conceals on [his person or among his] such person's self or
among such person's belongings a book or other archival library
materials, belonging to, or deposited in, a library facility with the
intention of removing the same from the library facility without
authority or without authority removes a book or other archival library
materials from such library facility , or (B) [he] such person mutilates a
book or other archival library materials belonging to, or deposited in, a
library facility, so as to render it unusable or reduce its value. The term
"book or other archival library materials" includes any book, plate,
picture, photograph, engraving, painting, drawing, map, manusc ript,
document, letter, public record, microform, sound recording,
audiovisual material in any format, magnetic or other tape, electronic
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data-processing record, artifact or other documentary, written or
printed material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or any
part thereof, belonging to, on loan to, or otherwise in the custody of a
library facility. The term "library facility" includes any public library,
any library of an educational institution, organization or society, any
museum, any repository of public records and any archives.
(13) Conversion of leased property. (A) A person is guilty of
conversion of leased personal property who, with the intent of
converting the same to [his] such person's own use or that of a third
person, after renting or leasing such property under an agreement in
writing which provides for the return of such property to a particular
place at a particular time, sells, conveys, conceals or aids in concealing
such property or any part thereof, and who thereafter fails to return such
property to the agreed plac e or to any other place of business of the
lessor within one hundred ninety -two hours after the lessor shall have
sent a written demand to [him] such person for the return of the
property by registered or certified mail addressed to [him at his ] such
person at such person's address as shown in the written agreement,
unless a more recent address is known to the lessor. Acknowledgment
of the receipt of such written demand by the lessee shall not be necessary
to establish that one hundred ninety-two hours have passed since such
written demand was sent. (B) Any person, being in possession of
personal property other than wearing apparel, received upon a written
lease, who, with intent to defraud, sells, conveys, conceals or aids in
concealing such property, or any part thereof, sh all be prima facie
presumed to have done so with the intention of converting such
property to [his] such person's own use. (C) A person who uses a false
or fictitious name or address in obtaining such leased personal property
shall be prima facie presumed to have obtained such leased personal
property with the intent of converting the same to [his] such person's
own use or that of a third person. (D) "Leased personal property", as
used in this subdivision, means any personal property received
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pursuant to a written contract, by which one owning such property, the
lessor, grants to another, the lessee, the right to possess, use and enjoy
such personal property for a specified period of time for a specified sum,
but does not include personal property that is rented or leased pursuant
to chapter 743i.
(14) Failure to pay prevailing rate of wages. A person is guilty of
failing to pay the prevailing rate of wages when [he] such person (A)
files a certified payroll, in accordance with section 31-53 which [he] such
person knows is false, in violation of section 53a -157a, and (B) fails to
pay to an employee or to an employee welfare fund the amount attested
to in the certified payroll with the intent to convert such amount to [his]
such person's own use or to the use of a third party.
(15) Theft of utility service. A person is guilty of theft of utility service
when [he] such person intentionally obtains electric, gas, water,
telecommunications, wireless radio communications or community
antenna television service that is available only for compensation: (A)
By deception or threat or by false token, slug or other means including,
but not limited to, electronic or mechanical device or unauthorized use
of a confidential identification or authorization code or through
fraudulent statements, to avoid payment for the service by [himself]
such person or another person; or (B) by tampering or making
connection with or disconnecting the meter, pipe, cable, conduit,
conductor, attachment or other equipment or by manufacturing,
modifying, altering, programming, reprogramming or possessing any
device, soft ware or equipment or part or component thereof or by
disguising the identity or identification numbers of any device or
equipment utilized by a supplier of electric, gas, water,
telecommunications, wireless radio communications or community
antenna television service, without the consent of such supplier, in order
to avoid payment for the service by [himself] such person or another
person; or (C) with intent to avoid payment by [himself] such person or
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another person for a prospective or already rendered service the charge
or compensation for which is measured by a meter or other mechanical
measuring device provided by the supplier of the service, by tampering
with such meter or device or by attempting i n any manner to prevent
such meter or device from performing its measuring function, without
the consent of the supplier of the service. There shall be a rebuttable
presumption that the person to whom the service is billed has the intent
to obtain the serv ice and to avoid making payment for the service if,
without the consent of the supplier of the service: (i) Any meter, pipe,
cable, conduit, conductor, attachment or other equipment has been
tampered with or connected or disconnected, (ii) any device, soft ware
or equipment or part or component thereof has been modified, altered,
programmed, reprogrammed or possessed, (iii) the identity or
identification numbers of any device or equipment utilized by the
supplier of the service have been disguised, or (iv) a meter or other
mechanical measuring device provided by the supplier of the service
has been tampered with or prevented from performing its measuring
function. The presumption does not apply if the person to whose service
the condition applies has received such service for less than thirty -one
days or until the service supplier has made at least one meter or service
reading and provided a billing statement to the person as to whose
service the condition applies. The presumption does not apply with
respect to wireless radio communications.
(16) Air bag fraud. A person is guilty of air bag fraud when such
person, with intent to defraud another person, obtains property from
such other person or a third person by knowingly selling, installing or
reinstalling any object, including any counterfeit air bag or
nonfunctional air bag, as such terms are defined in section 14 -106d, in
lieu of an air bag that was designed in accordance with federal safety
requirements as provided in 49 CFR 571.208, as amended, and which is
proper for the make, model and year of the vehicle, as part of the vehicle
inflatable restraint system.
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(17) Theft of motor fuel. A person is guilty of theft of motor fuel when
such person (A) delivers or causes to be delivered motor fuel, as defined
in section 14 -327a, into the fuel tank of a vehicle or into a portable
container, or into both, on the premises of a retail dealer, as defined in
section 14-318, and (B) with the intent to appropriate such motor fuel to
[himself] such person or a third person, leaves such premises without
paying the purchase price for such motor fuel.
(18) Failure to repay surplus Citizens' Election Fund grant funds. A
person is guilty of failure to repay surplus Citizens' Election Fund grant
funds when such person fails to return to the Citizens' Election Fund
any surplus funds from a grant made pursuant to sections 9-700 to 9 -
716, inclusive, not later than ninety days after the primary or election for
which the grant is made.
(19) Fostering the sale of stolen property. A person is guilty of
fostering the sale of stolen property when such person hosts, advertises
or otherwise assists in the sale of stolen property, including through an
online platform, knowing or believing that such property has been
stolen, unless such property is received, retained or disposed of with
purpose to restore such property to the owner.
(20) Gift card crime. (A) A person is guilty of gift card crime when,
with intent to defraud, such person (i) acquires or retains possession of
a gift card or gift card redemption information without the consent of
the cardholder, card issuer or gift card seller; (ii) alters or tampers with
a gift card or its packaging; or (iii) devises a scheme to obtain a gift card
or gift card information from a cardholder, card issuer or gift card seller
by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations or promises.
(B) For purposes of this subdivision: (i) "Cardholder" means any person
or party (I) to whom a physical or virtual gift c ard is issued through a
purchase, or (II) who receives a gift card from a willing party; (ii) "card
issuer" means any person who issues a gift card or the agent of such
person with respect to su ch card; (iii) "closed -loop gift card" means a
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card, code or device that is (I) issued to a consumer on a prepaid basis
in a specified amount, regardless of whether such amount may be
increased or reloaded in exchange for payment, and (II) redeemable for
goods, services or anything of value upon presen tation by a consumer
to a single merchant or group of affiliated merchants; (iv) "gift card"
means a physical or digital closed -loop gift card or open -loop gift card
that is activated or inactivated; (v) "gift card redemption information"
means information unique to each gift card that allows the cardholder
to access, transfer or spend the funds on such gift card; (vi) "open -loop
gift card" means a card, code or device that is (I) issued to a consumer
on a prepaid basis in a specified amount, regardless of whether such
amount may be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment, and (II)
redeemable for goods, services or anything of value upon presentation
by a consumer to multiple unaffiliated merchants within a payment
card network; and (vii) "gift card se ller" means a merchant who is
engaged in the business of selling open -loop gift cards or closed -loop
gift cards to consumers.
Sec. 3. Section 52 -564a of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) Any person eighteen years of age or older or an emancipated
minor who takes possession of goods or merchandise displayed or
offered for sale by any mercantile establishment, or who takes from any
real property any agricultural produce kept, grown or ra ised on the
property for purposes of sale, without the consent of the owner and with
the intention of converting such goods, merchandise or produce to [his]
such person's own use without having paid the purchase price thereof,
or who alters the price indic ia of such goods or merchandise, shall be
liable in a civil action to the owner of the goods, merchandise or produce
for (1) the actual and reasonable costs of maintaining the action,
including court costs and a reasonable attorney's fee, (2) the retail value
of the goods, merchandise or produce taken, if not recovered by the time
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of the commencement of the action or if recovered in an unmerchantable
condition, and (3) punitive damages in an amount not to exceed [three
hundred] one thousand dollars.
(b) A conviction of larceny by shoplifting, as defined in subdivision
(9) of section 53a -119, as amended by this act , shall not be a condition
precedent to the maintenance of a civil action under this section.
(c) In any action brought pursuant to subsection (a) of this section, if
the plaintiff does not prevail, the court may award costs and reasonable
attorney's fees to the defendant . [his costs, including a reasonable
attorney's fee, and damages not to exceed three hundred dollars.]
(d) No action shall be brought pursuant to subsection (a) of this
section but within two years from the date of the act complained of.
Sec. 4. Section 46b -486 of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
The Department of Public Health may release information relating to
an acknowledgment of parentage to (1) (A) a signatory of the
acknowledgment, (B) the child if such child is eighteen years of age or
older, (C) a guardian of the person whose parentage is acknowledged,
(D) an attorney representing a person to whom such information may
be released, (E) a court, (F) a federal agency, (G) an authorized
representative of the Department of Social Services, (H) the child
support agency of this state, (I) any agency acting under a cooperative
or purchase of service agreement with the child support agency of this
state, and (J) the child support agency of another state , and (2) an
authorized representative of the Department of Children and Families
when such information is requested in furtherance of the department's
duties or responsibilities in a matter pending the superior court for
juvenile matters where parentage of the child is outstanding.
Sec. 5. Section 13b -46 of the general statutes is repealed and the
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following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) The executive director may approve airports, heliports, vertiports,
restricted landing areas and other air navigation facilities. Any
municipality or person acquiring property for the purpose of
constructing or establishing an airport, heliport, vertip ort or restricted
landing area shall, prior to such acquisition, apply to the executive
director for a certificate of approval of the site selected and the general
purpose or purposes for which the property is to be acquired, to ensure
that the property an d its use shall conform to minimum standards of
safety and shall serve the public interest. Any proposed airport,
heliport, vertiport, restricted landing area or other air navigation facility
at which more than thirty -six landings and takeoffs are expected to be
made by aircraft in any year shall be approved by the executive director
before it shall be licensed to be used or operated. The executive director
shall make no charge for approval certificates of proposed property
acquisition for airport, heliport , vertiport or restricted landing area
purposes.
(b) The executive director may (1) license [airports, heliports,
vertiports, restricted landing areas and other air navigation facilities ]
any airport, heliport, vertiport, restricted landing area and other air
navigation facility at which more than thirty -six landings and takeoffs
are expected to be made by aircraft in any year, and (2) renew such
licenses. When a certificate of approval of an airport, heliport, vertiport,
[or] restricted landing area or other air navigation facility has been
issued by the executive director, the executive director may grant a
license for operation and use. On and after [July 1, 1995] October 1, 2026,
the executive director shall charge a fee of [one hundred fifty ] three
hundred dollars for each license or renewal thereof. Each such license
shall be effective for a period of three years from the date of issuance.
Each licensee shall certify, on a form provided by the executive director,
that the licensed facility shall comply wit h all applicable federal, state
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and local laws and regulations during the license period. Municipalities
shall be exempt from the payment of any license fee in connection with
airports owned or operated by such municipalities.
(c) The executive director may (1) register any airport, heliport,
vertiport, restricted landing area or other air navigation facility at which
thirty-six or fewer landings and takeoffs are expected to be made by
aircraft in any year, and (2) renew such re gistrations. On and after
October 1, 2026, the executive director shall charge a fee of one hundred
dollars for each registration or renewal thereof. Each such registration
shall be effective for a period of three years from the date of issuance.
Each regi strant shall certify, on a form provided by the executive
director, (A) that the registered facility shall comply with all applicable
federal, state and local laws and regulations during the registration
period, and (B) that there will be thirty -six or few er landings and
takeoffs by aircraft at such facility in any year during the registration
period. Any airport, heliport, vertiport, restricted landing area or other
air navigation facility at which thirty-six or fewer landings and takeoffs
are expected to be made by aircraft in any year shall be registered with
the executive director pursuant to this subsection before it is to be used
or operated. Municipalities shall be exempt from the payment of any
registration fee in connection with airports owned or op erated by such
municipalities.
[(c)] (d) No municipality or officer or employee thereof and no person
shall operate an airport, heliport, vertiport, restricted landing area or
other air navigation facility for which approval has not been granted,
and a license has not been issued, by the executive director in
accordance with the provisions of subsection (b) of this section or
registration has not been issued by the executive director in accordance
with the provisions of subsection (c) of this section . The provisions of
this section shall not apply to any airport, heliport, vertiport, restricted
landing area or other air navigation facility owned by the federal
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government within this state. Any person who violates the provisions
of this subsection shall be guilty of a class C misdemeanor.
[(d)] (e) Any heliport in operation prior to October 1, 1985, shall be
deemed licensed for operation and use and the executive director shall
issue an original license for any such heliport upon the written request
of the person who controls and operates such helipo rt. Such heliports
shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter concerning the renewal
or revocation of licenses, inspection and review of air navigation
facilities and any other provision of this chapter except those concerning
the initial approval or licensing of such facilities. Such heliports shall be
subject to any rule or procedure adopted by the authority in accordance
with the provisions of this chapter except those concerning the initial
approval or licensing of any air navigation facility.
Sec. 6. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 18 -81ll of the
general statutes, as amended by section 2 of public act 26-40, is repealed
and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(b) (1) The department shall, during the intake of any person who is
incarcerated, (A) verify directly with such person any medications taken
by such person, or make such verification through the State-wide Health
Information Exchange, established pursuant to section 17b -59d, the
pharmacy used by such person or such person's prescribing health care
provider, (B) request that such person provide the name of such person's
primary care provider and authorize the sharing of medical information
with such provide r and a designated family member or health care
proxy by signing a release of information form, and (C) accept from such
person any prescription medication such person has in such person's
possession for storage and possible administration as prescribed to such
person, and in accordance with written policies and procedures
established by the department to ensure patient safety, by appropriate
Department of Correction staff. [as prescribed to such person.]
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Sec. 7. Subsection (c) of section 18 -100j of the general statutes, as
amended by section 8 of public act 26-40, is repealed and the following
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(c) (1) Not later than October 1, [2027] 2026, the Departments of
Correction, Mental Health and Addiction Services and Social Services
and the Office of Policy and Management shall, within available
appropriations, initiate a pilot program to assist with discharge
planning for patients with chronic disease and behavioral health needs,
including mental health and substance abuse disorders, and to
coordinate specialty care referrals for persons who are incarcerated at
York Correctional Institution upon release. Such program shall be
administered by the health services and behavioral health employees
within the Department of Correction and shall expand internal capacity
for discharge planning and care coordination, incl uding coordination
with the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, to
facilitate access to programs and services upon release. Said
departments and office shall contract with a federally qualified health
center in this state to work with Depar tment of Correction health
services and behavioral health employees to provide community-based
care for persons upon release for not fewer than two years. The federally
qualified health center shall work with Department of Correction
employees to improve c ontinuity of care and community health care
standards for said department. The provisions of this subsection shall
not be construed to permit the contracting out of work customarily
performed by Department of Correction employees.
(2) Not later than January 15, [2029] 2028, and January fifteenth
following each calendar year thereafter during which such program is
maintained, the Departments of Mental Health and Addiction Services
and Social Services, the Office of Policy and Management, the
Department of Correction health s ervices and behavioral health
employees and the federally qualified health center assisting with such
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program shall report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a,
on the results of such program to the joint standing committees of the
General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to the
Department of Correction, human services and publ ic health. Such
reports shall evaluate the (A) effectiveness of discharge planning and
reentry care coordination for participants in the program, (B)
management and continuity of care for chronic diseases among
participants in the program, (C) coordination , timeliness and
completion of specialty care referrals for participants in the program,
(D) extent to which participants successfully access community -based
health care services following release from the correctional institution,
and (E) costs of the pro gram when compared to other delivery of care
models in use at the time such program is initiated.
Sec. 8. Section 54 -102kk of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2026):
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law governing
[postconviction] post-conviction relief, any person who was convicted
of a crime and sentenced to incarceration may, at any time during the
term of such incarceration or after completion of such term and while
subject to the jurisdiction or supervision of any probation, parole or
correctional agency, file a petition with the sentencing court requesting
the DNA testing of any evidence that is in the possession or control of
the Division of Criminal Jus tice, any law enforcement agency, any
laboratory or the Superior Court. The petitioner shall state under
penalties of perjury that the requested testing is related to the
investigation or prosecution that resulted in the petitioner's conviction
and that the evidence sought to be tested contains biological evidence.
(b) After notice to the prosecutorial official and a hearing, the court
shall order DNA testing if it finds that:
(1) A reasonable probability exists that the petitioner would not have
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been prosecuted or convicted if exculpatory results had been obtained
through DNA testing;
(2) The evidence is still in existence and is capable of being subjected
to DNA testing;
(3) The evidence, or a specific portion of the evidence identified by
the petitioner, was never previously subjected to DNA testing, or the
testing requested by the petitioner may resolve an issue that was never
previously resolved by previous testing; and
(4) The petition before the Superior Court was filed in order to
demonstrate the petitioner's innocence and not to delay the
administration of justice.
(c) After notice to the prosecutorial official and a hearing, the court
may order DNA testing if it finds that:
(1) A reasonable probability exists that the requested testing will
produce DNA results which would have altered the verdict or reduced
the petitioner's sentence if the results had been available at the prior
proceedings leading to the judgment of conviction;
(2) The evidence is still in existence and is capable of being subjected
to DNA testing;
(3) The evidence, or a specific portion of the evidence identified by
the petitioner, was never previously subjected to DNA testing, or the
testing requested by the petitioner may resolve an issue that was never
previously resolved by previous testing; and
(4) The petition before the Superior Court was filed in order to
demonstrate the petitioner's innocence and not to delay the
administration of justice.
(d) The costs of DNA testing ordered pursuant to this section shall be
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borne by the state or the petitioner, as the court may order in the
interests of justice, except that DNA testing shall not be denied because
of the inability of the petitioner to pay the costs of such testing.
(e) In a proceeding under this section, the petitioner shall have the
right to be represented by counsel and, if the petitioner is indigent, the
court shall appoint counsel for the petitioner in accordance with section
51-296.
(f) An order of the court denying the petitioner's request for DNA
testing of any evidence that is in the possession or control of the Division
of Criminal Justice, any law enforcement agency, any laboratory or the
Superior Court shall be a final judgment for purposes of an appeal.
Sec. 9. Section 54 -91c of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective January 1, 2027):
(a) For the purposes of this section, "victim" means a person who is a
victim of a crime, the legal representative of such person, a member of a
deceased victim's immediate family or a person designated by a
deceased victim in accordance with section 1-56r.
(b) (1) (A) Prior to any proceedings involving the dismissal of a
charge against any defendant or the entry of a nolle prosequi to a charge
for any offense described in subdivision (2) of this subsection against a
defendant, or (B) prior to the imposition of sentence upon any defendant
who has been found guilty of any crime or has pleaded guilty or nolo
contendere to any crime, and prior to the acceptance by the court of a
plea of guilty or nolo contendere made pursuant to a plea agreement
with the state, t he court shall permit any victim of the crime to appear
before the court for the purpose of making a statement for the record,
which statement may include the victim's opinion [of] concerning the
dismissal of a charge against any defendant or the entry of a nolle
prosequi to a charge for any offense described in subdivision (2) of this
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subsection against a defendant or any plea agreement. In lieu of such
appearance, the victim may submit a written statement or, if the victim
of the crime is deceased, the legal representative or a member of the
immediate family of such deceased victim may submit a statement of
such deceased victim to the state's attorney, assistant state's attorney or
deputy assistant state's attorney in charge of the case. Such state's
attorney, assistant state's attorney or deputy assistant state's attorney
shall file the statement with the sentencing court and the statement shall
be made a part of the record at the sentencing hearing. Any such
statement, whether oral or written, shall relate to the facts of the case,
the appropriateness of any penalty and the extent of a ny injuries,
financial losses and loss of earnings directly resulting from the crime for
which the defendant is being sentenced. The court shall inquire on the
record whether any victim is present for the purpose of making an oral
statement or has submitte d a written statement. If no victim is present
and no such written statement has been submitted, the court shall
inquire on the record whether an attempt has been made to notify any
such victim as provided in subdivision (1) of subsection (c) of this
section or, if the defendant was originally charged with a violation of
section 53a-167c for assaulting a peace officer, whether the peace officer
has been personally notified as provided in subdivision (2) of subsection
(c) of this section. After consideration of any such statements, the court
may refuse to accept, where appropriate, a negotiated plea or sentence,
and the court shall give the defendant an opportunity to enter a new
plea and to elect trial by jury or by the court.
(2) The following are offenses for which the court, pursuant to
subdivision (1) of this subsection, shall permit any victim of a crime to
appear before the court for the purpose of making a statement for the
record concerning the dismissal of a charge against a defendant or the
entry of a nolle prosequi to a charge against a defendant:
(A) An offense that is a violation of subdivision (2) or (3) of subsection
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(a) of section 53-21, or section 53a -70, 53a-70a, 53a-70c, 53a-71, 53a-72a,
53a-73a, 53a-83b, 53a-86, 53a-90a, 53a-90b, 53a-189a, 53a-189c, 53a-191,
53a-192a, 53a-196, 53a-196a, 53a-196b, 53a-196c, 53a-196d, 53a-196e, 53a-
196f, 53a-196h, 53a-196i or 53a-196j; or
(B) Any other offense that is (i) a nonviolent sexual offense or a
sexually violent offense, each as defined in section 54 -250, or (ii)
designated as a family violence crime, as defined in section 46b-38a.
(c) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (2) of this subsection, prior
to the imposition of sentence upon such defendant and prior to the
acceptance of a plea pursuant to a plea agreement, the state's attorney,
assistant state's attorney or deputy assistant state's attorney in charge of
the case shall notify the victim of such crime of the date, time and place
of the original sentencing hearing or any judicial proceeding concerning
the acceptance of a plea pursuant to a plea agreement, provided the
victim has informed such state's attorney, assistant state's attorney or
deputy assistant state's attorney that such victim wishes to make or
submit a statement as provided in subsection (b) of this section and [has
complied with a request from such state's attorney, assistant state's
attorney or deputy assistant state's attorney to submit a stamped, self -
addressed postcard for the purpose of such notification] such victim has
provided the state's attorney, assistant state's attorney or deputy
assistant state's attorney with up-to-date contact information.
(2) Prior to the imposition of sentence upon a defendant originally
charged with a violation of section 53a -167c for assaulting a peace
officer, and prior to the acceptance of a plea pursuant to a plea
agreement, the state's attorney, assistant state's attorne y or deputy
assistant state's attorney in charge of the case shall personally notify the
peace officer who was the victim of such crime of the date, time and
place of the original sentencing hearing or any judicial proceeding
concerning the acceptance of a plea pursuant to a plea agreement.
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(3) If the state's attorney, assistant state's attorney or deputy assistant
state's attorney is unable to notify the victim, such state's attorney,
assistant state's attorney or deputy state's attorney shall sign a statement
as to such notification.
(d) Upon the request of a victim, prior to the acceptance by the court
of a plea of a defendant pursuant to a proposed plea agreement, the
state's attorney, assistant state's attorney or deputy assistant state's
attorney in charge of the case shall provide suc h victim with the terms
of such proposed plea agreement in writing. If the terms of the proposed
plea agreement provide for a term of imprisonment which is more than
two years or a total effective sentence of more than a two -year term of
imprisonment, the state's attorney, assistant state's attorney or deputy
assistant state's attorney in charge of the case shall indicate: (1) The
maximum period of imprisonment that may apply to the defendant; (2)
whether the defendant may be eligible to earn risk reduc tion credits
pursuant to section 18-98e; (3) whether the defendant may be eligible to
apply for release on parole pursuant to section 54-125a; and (4) whether
the defendant may be eligible for automatic erasure of such defendant's
criminal conviction pursuant to subsection (e) of section 54-142a.
(e) The provisions of this section shall not apply to any proceedings
held in accordance with section 46b-121 or section 54-76h.
Sec. 10. Section 7 -294tt of the general statutes is repealed and the
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
Not later than January 1, 2024, the Police Officer Standards and
Training Council shall (1) examine (A) programs and strategies used in
the state or other jurisdictions through which police officers collaborate
with social workers, and (B) the evaluation s ubmitted pursuant to
section 18 of public act 20 -1 of the July special session; and (2) issue
guidance to law enforcement units that (A) includes recommendations
of how police officers may collaborate with social workers , and (B) on
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and after October 1, 2026, includes (i) the potential impact of such
collaboration, and (ii) instances where such collaboration may or may
not be feasible, including when a social worker may respond to a call for
assistance or accompany a police officer on certain calls for assistance.
Sec. 11. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2027) (a) As used in this section:
(1) "Bona fide market price" means the price at which a consumer
good or consumer service is advertised to the public on a regular basis
by the retail seller or third -party delivery service for a reasonably
substantial period of time;
(2) "Consumer" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -515
of the general statutes;
(3) "Consumer good" means any article that is purchased, leased,
exchanged or received primarily for personal, family or household
purposes;
(4) "Consumer service" means any service that is purchased, leased,
exchanged or received primarily for personal, family or household
purposes;
(5) "Discounted price" means any price for a consumer good or
consumer service that is (A) established for, or offered to, a consumer or
group of consumers, and (B) verifiably lower than the generally
available, publicly disclosed and bona fide market price established for
the consumer good or consumer service;
(6) "Person" means any individual, association, corporation, limited
liability company, partnership, trust or other legal entity;
(7) "Personal data" has the same meaning as provided in section 42 -
515 of the general statutes;
(8) "Retail seller" (A) means a retailer, as defined in section 12 -407 of
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the general statutes, to the extent such retailer is engaged in making
sales, at retail, of tangible personal property, and (B) includes, but is not
limited to, a retail food establishment;
(9) "Surveillance pricing" means the practice of establishing a
customized price for a consumer good or consumer service that is
specific to a consumer or group of consumers based, in whole or in part,
on the consumer's personal data collected (A) through any technology
or technological method, system or tool, including, but not limited to,
any biometric monitoring, camera, device tracking or sensor, that is
used to gather personal data in a physical or digital environment, and
(B) by the person establishin g the customized price either directly or
indirectly by gathering, purchasing or otherwise acquiring such
personal data from a third party; and
(10) "Third-party delivery service" means a company, organization or
entity, outside of the operation of a retail food establishment's business,
that facilitates delivery or online ordering services to customers of a
retail food establishment.
(b) (1) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, any person
doing business in the state who engages in surveillance pricing for any
reason other than to establish a discounted price for a consumer good
or consumer service to be sold, leased, exchanged or provided as part of
an online transaction, and who directly or indirectly advertises or
promotes online a price established for a consumer good or consumer
service by using surveillance pricing, labels a consumer good with such
price online or publishes an online statement, display, image, offer or
announcement disclosing such price, shall include in such online
advertisement, promotion, label, statement, display, image, offer or
announcement the following disclosure, or a substantially similar
disclosure: "THIS PRICE WAS INCREASED USING YOUR PERSONAL
DATA". Any person doing business in this state who is required to
include such disclosure shall disclose to consumers their rights under
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section 42-518 of the general statutes. No disclosure shall be required
under this subdivision if the advertised, promoted, labeled or published
price is the bona fide market price.
(2) The disclosure required under subdivision (1) of this subsection
shall be readily visible to the average consumer.
(c) (1) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, no retail
seller or third -party delivery service doing business in the state shall
engage in surveillance pricing.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this
subsection, the following shall not be deemed to constitute surveillance
pricing:
(A) Establishing for, or offering to, a consumer a discounted price for
a consumer good or consumer service for purposes such as retaining a
consumer as a customer, reestablishing a consumer as a customer,
attracting a consumer as a new customer, cross -selling an item to a
consumer or reengaging a lapsed customer;
(B) Establishing for, or offering to, different consumers different
prices for the same consumer good or consumer service due to (i)
justifiable differences in the costs incurred in providing such consumer
good or consumer service to such consumers, including, but not limited
to, justifiable differences in consumers' physical locations, consumer
selections, delivery distances or delivery times, or (ii) justifiable
temporal differences, including, but not limited to, justifiable temporal
differences due to price fluctuations based on supply and demand;
(C) Establishing for, or offering to, a consumer or group of consumers
a discounted price for a consumer good or consumer service (i) based
on publicly disclosed discounted prices and uniform terms and
conditions that may be satisfied by any consumer, incl uding, but not
limited to, by signing up for a mailing list, registering for promotional
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communications or participating in a p romotional event, (ii) that is
available to all consumers who are members of a broadly defined group,
including, but not limited to, veterans or members of the armed forces,
senior citizens, students, teachers or residents of a specific area, based
on publicly disclosed discounts and uniform terms and conditions, or
(iii) through a loyalty, membership or rewards program in which
consumers must affirmatively enroll. The retail seller or t hird-party
delivery service shall prominently post the discount and discounted
price, and the uniform terms and conditions for such discount and
discounted price, on such retail seller's or third-party delivery service's
Internet web site in language that is readily understandable by the
average consumer; or
(D) Correcting a price resulting from a pricing error or resetting a
price following a system or network outage.
(d) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this section shall not
be construed to apply to:
(1) Any person licensed, authorized to operate or registered, or
required to be licensed, authorized to operate or registered, pursuant to
the insurance laws of this state; or
(2) Any person who can demonstrate that any refusal to extend credit,
the terms, rates or pricing on which any credit or financial services are
extended or any refusal to enter into a transaction with a specific
consumer is based on (A) data provided in a consumer report covered
by the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 USC 1681 et seq., as amended from
time to time, or (B) data reflecting factors a creditor is permitted to
consider under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 USC 1681 et seq.,
as amended from time to time, and the regulations promulgated under
said act.
(e) Any violation of the provisions of subsections (b) to (d), inclusive,
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of this section shall constitute an unfair or deceptive trade practice for
the purposes of subsection (a) of section 42 -110b of the general statutes
and shall be enforced solely by the Attorney General. Nothing in this
section shall be construed to create a private right of action or to provide
grounds for an action under section 42-110g of the general statutes.
Sec. 12. (Effective from passage) Any municipality or regional board of
education that increased its local share of the budget for the board of
education for such municipality or regional board of education for the
fiscal year ending June 30, 2027, over the amount of the local share of
the budget for such board of education for the fiscal year ending June
30, 2026, may adjust its adopted budget or tax levies to reduce such local
share for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2027, including the local share
and funds received pursuant to sections 391 and 394 of public act 26-68,
provided the resulting local share is not less than the greater of (1) the
amount of funding provided for education under its adopted budget, or
(2) the sum of the budget for the board of education for such
municipality or regional board of education for the fiscal year ending
June 30, 2026, and any funds received pursuant to said sections 391 and
394 of public act 26-68.
Sec. 13. Section 391 of public act 26-68 is repealed and the following
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
(a) (1) For the fiscal year ending June 30, 2026, the city of Hartford
shall be paid a supplemental education aid grant in an amount equal to
five million dollars of its grant amount listed in section 390 of [this act]
public act 26-68. The amount paid to the city of Hartford shall be paid
by the Comptroller, upon certification of the Commissioner of
Education, to the treasurer of Hartford not later than June thirtieth of
said fiscal year. All aid paid to the city of Hartford pursuant to the
provisions of t his subdivision shall be expended for educational
purposes only and shall be expended upon the authorization of the
board of education for Hartford. [Such grant shall not be used to
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supplant local funding for educational purposes.]
(2) For the fiscal year ending June 30, 2027, each town shall be paid a
supplemental education aid grant equal to the amount prescribed in
section 390 of [this act] public act 26-68. The amount due each town shall
be paid by the Comptroller, upon certification of the Commissioner of
Education, to the treasurer of each town not later than June thirtieth of
said fiscal year. [All] Subject to the provisions of section 12 of this act,
all aid distributed to a town pursuant to the provisions of this
subdivision shall be expended for educational purposes only and shall
be expended upon the authorization of the local or regional board of
education. [Such grant shall not be used to supplant local funding for
educational purposes.]
(b) Such grant shall not be considered part of the budgeted
appropriation for education for the town for the fiscal year ending June
30, 2027, for purposes of calculating the minimum budget requirement
for the town pursuant to section 10 -262j of the general statutes for the
fiscal year ending June 30, 2028.
Sec. 14. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 394 of public act 26-68 are
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof ( Effective from
passage):
(c) [All] Subject to the provisions of section 12 of this act, all aid
distributed to a town pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be
expended for educational purposes only and shall be expended upon
the authorization of the local or regional board of education. [Such grant
shall not be used to supplant local funding for educational purposes.]
(d) Such grant shall not be considered part of the budgeted
appropriation for education for the town for the fiscal year ending June
30, 2027, for purposes of calculating the minimum budget requirement
for the town pursuant to section 10 -262j of the general statutes for the
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fiscal year ending June 30, 2028.
Sec. 15. Section 178 of public act 26-68 is repealed and the following
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
Notwithstanding the provisions of section 12 -142 of the general
statutes, title 7 or 10 of the general statutes, chapters 170 and 204 of the
general statutes, any special act, any municipal charter or any home rule
ordinance, if a municipality or regional board of education has adopted
a budget or levied taxes for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2027, prior to
the adoption of the state budget for said fiscal year and such
municipality or regional board of education receives, pursuant to such
adopted state b udget, an amount of state aid more than the amount
projected in the municipality's or regional board of education's adopted
budget, such (1) municipality, by vote of its legislative body or, in a
municipality where the legislative body is a town meeting, b y vote of
the board of selectmen, or (2) regional board of education, may (A)
amend its budget, and (B) not later than July 1, 2026, adjust the tax levy
and the amount of any remaining installments of such taxes , provided
such amended budget shall not redu ce the amount provided by the
municipality to the local or regional board of education for education
purposes below the greater of (i) the amount of local funding provided
for such purpose under the adopted budget, or (ii) (I) the minimum
budget requiremen t for the town pursuant to section 10 -262j of the
general statutes for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2027, plus (II) the
amount of funds paid to the municipality or regional board of education
pursuant to sections 391 and 394 of public act 26-68. The amendment to
such budget shall be in an amount not exceeding the increase in state
aid to the municipality or regional board of education.
Sec. 16. ( Effective from passage ) The provisions of sections 12 to 15,
inclusive, of this act shall not apply to the city of Bridgeport.
Sec. 17. Subdivision (1) of subsection (e) of section 18-81qq of the 2026
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supplement to the general statutes, as amended by section 1 of public
act 26 -40, is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof
(Effective from passage):
(e) (1) The Correction Ombuds need not investigate a complaint, if
the Correction Ombuds determines such investigation is not warranted.
If the Correction Ombuds determines that such investigation is not
warranted, the Correction Ombuds shall inform the person making the
complaint of such decision in writing, which complaint and decision
shall be confidential and exempt from the Freedom of Information Act,
as defined in section 1 -200, and shall not be disclosed without the
consent of such person. Not later than December 31, 2026, and each
December thirty-first annually thereafter, the Correction Ombuds shall
submit a report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11 -4a, to
the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having
cognizance of matter s relating to the Department of Correction setting
forth the number of complaints for which the Correction Ombuds
determined that an investigation was not warranted and a summary of
the reason for each such determination. Such report shall be a public
record, as defined in section 1-200.
Sec. 18. Subparagraph (B) of subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of
section 12-705 of the 2026 supplement to the general statutes is repealed
and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2026):
(B) (i) For the period commencing July 1, [2025] 2026, and ending
December 31, [2026] 2027, the withholding requirement for a lump sum
payment under clause (ii) of this subparagraph shall not apply, except
that if a payee has requested an amount to be withheld from such
distribution, the payer shall withhold such amount.
(ii) With respect to a lump sum distribution, if a payee does not make
a request to have an amount withheld from such distribution, the payer
shall withhold from the taxable portion of the distribution at the highest
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marginal rate, except that no withholding shall be required if (I) any
portion of the lump sum distribution was previously subject to tax, or
(II) the lump sum distribution is a rollover that is effected as a direct
trustee-to-trustee transfer or as a dire ct rollover in the form of a check
made payable to another qualified account.
(iii) For purposes of this subparagraph, "lump sum distribution"
means a payment from a payer to a resident payee of an amount
exceeding fifty per cent of such resident payee's entire account balance
or more than five thousand dollars, whichever is less, exclusi ve of any
other tax withholding and any administrative charges and fees.
Sec. 19. Section 44 of public act 26 -100 is repealed. ( Effective from
passage)