NATUROPATHIC MEDICAL PRACTICE

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104TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2025 and 2026
HB3450

Introduced 2/18/2025, by Rep. Terra Costa Howard

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

New Act
225 ILCS 60/54.5
720 ILCS 570/102

from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102

Creates the Naturopathic Medical Practice Act. Provides for the
licensure of naturopathic doctors. Sets forth the qualifications for
licensure. Provides the scope of practice of naturopathic doctors.
Requires a person licensed under the Act to use specified titles and
prohibits a person not licensed under the Act from using specified titles.
Creates the Naturopathic Medical Board to oversee the licensure of
naturopathic doctors and matters relating to training and licensure of
naturopathic doctors. Sets forth the membership and duties of the Board.
Contains provisions concerning approved naturopathic medical educational
programs; displaying licenses; written collaboration agreements;
prohibited actions by a licensee; exemptions; license expiration, renewal,
denial, revocation, and continuing education; grounds for disciplinary
action; investigations, notice, and hearings; records of proceedings at
formal hearings; and confidentiality. Amends the Medical Practice Act of
1987. Authorizes physicians to collaborate with a naturopathic doctor in
accordance with the requirements of the Naturopathic Medical Practice Act.
Amends the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. Adds naturopathic doctors
to meaning of "prescriber" and "prescription". Effective immediately.
LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b

A BILL FOR

HB3450
LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1

AN ACT concerning regulation.

2

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
3
represented in the General Assembly:

4

Section 1.
Short title.
This Act may be cited as the
5
Naturopathic Medical Practice Act.

6

Section 5.
Purpose and findings.
The practice of
7
naturopathic medicine in the State is declared to affect the
8
public health, safety, and welfare and to be subject to
9
regulation and control in the public interest. It is further
10
declared to be a matter of public interest that naturopathic
11
doctors and the practice of naturopathic medicine, as defined
12
in this Act, merit the confidence of the public, that only
13
qualified persons be authorized to practice naturopathic
14
medicine in the State, and that no person shall practice
15
naturopathic medicine without a valid existing license to do
16
so.
17

The State is facing an unprecedented primary care shortage
18
in urban counties and an even higher shortage in rural
19
counties. Naturopathic doctors with a proper scope of practice
20
can help fill this void.
21

The General Assembly recognizes that naturopathic doctors
22
comprise a distinct health care profession that affects the
23
public health, safety, and welfare and that licensure of

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1
naturopathic doctors will increase freedom of choice in health
2
care and help address the primary care shortage in the State.
3
This Act shall be liberally construed to best carry out these
4
subjects and purposes.

5

Section 10.
Definitions.
In this Act:
6

"Approved naturopathic medical educational program" means
7
an educational program that the Board has approved as meeting
8
the requirements of Section 20 of this Act and that prepares
9
naturopathic doctors for the practice of naturopathic
10
medicine.
11

"Association" means an entity that is approved by the
12
American Association of Naturopathic Physicians and that
13
represents the interests of naturopathic doctors in this
14
State.
15

"Board" means the Naturopathic Medical Board established
16
under Section 80 of this Act.
17

"Clinical laboratory procedure" means the use of
18
venipuncture consistent with naturopathic medical practice,
19
commonly used diagnostic modalities consistent with
20
naturopathic practice, the recording of a patient's health
21
history, physical examination, ordering and interpretation of
22
radiographic diagnostics, and other standard imaging and
23
examination of body orifices, excluding endoscopy and
24
colonoscopy. "Clinical laboratory procedure" includes the
25
practice of obtaining samples of human tissues, except

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surgical excision beyond surgical excision that is authorized
2
as a minor office procedure.
3

"Department" mean the Department of Financial and
4
Professional Regulation.
5

"Homeopathic medicine" means a system of medicine based on
6
the use of infinitesimal doses of substances capable of
7
producing symptoms similar to those of the disease treated, as
8
listed in the Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States.
9

"Hygiene" means the use of preventive techniques,
10
including personal hygiene for asepsis, public health, and
11
safety.
12

"Laboratory examination" means:
13

(1) phlebotomy;
14

(2) a clinical laboratory procedure;
15

(3) an orificial examination;
16

(4) a physiological function test; and
17

(5) a screening or test that is consistent with
18

naturopathic education and training.
19

"Legend drug" has the same meaning as set forth in Section
20
3.23 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.
21

"License" means a license issued by the Board to an
22
individual pursuant to this Act and rules authorizing that
23
individual to practice naturopathic medicine in this State.
24

"Licensee" means a naturopathic doctor licensed by the
25
Board to practice naturopathic medicine in this State.
26

"Minor office procedure" includes:

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(1) the treatment of superficial lacerations, lesions,
2

or abrasions, excluding surgical care to treat a lesion
3

suspected of malignancy;
4

(2) the removal of foreign bodies located in
5

superficial structures, excluding the globe of the eye;
6

(3) trigger point therapy;
7

(4) dermal stimulation; and
8

(5) the use of antiseptics and topical or local
9

anesthetics.
10

"Naturopathic doctor" means an individual licensed under
11
this Act as a naturopathic doctor to practice naturopathic
12
medicine in this State as a primary care provider.
13

"Naturopathic medicine" means:
14

(1) a system of health care for the prevention,
15

diagnosis, and treatment of human health conditions,
16

injury, and disease;
17

(2) the promotion or restoration of health; and
18

(3) the support and stimulation of a patient's
19

inherent self-healing processes through patient education
20

and the use of naturopathic therapies and therapeutic
21

substances.
22

"Naturopathic physical medicine" means the use of one or
23
more of the following physical agents in a manner consistent
24
with naturopathic medical practice on a part or the whole of
25
the body, by hand or by mechanical means, in the resolution of
26
a human ailment or conditions:

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(1) air;
2

(2) water;
3

(3) heat;
4

(4) cold;
5

(5) sound;
6

(6) light;
7

(7) electromagnetism;
8

(8) soft tissue therapy;
9

(9) joint mobilization;
10

(10) therapeutic exercise; or
11

(11) naturopathic manipulation.
12

"Naturopathic therapy" means the use of:
13

(1) naturopathic physical medicine;
14

(2) suggestion;
15

(3) hygiene;
16

(4) a therapeutic substance;
17

(5) nutrition and food science;
18

(6) homeopathic medicine;
19

(7) a clinical laboratory procedure; or
20

(8) a minor office procedure.
21

"Nutrition and food science" means the prevention and
22
treatment of disease or other human conditions through the use
23
of food, water, herbs, roots, bark, or natural food elements.
24

"Prescription" has the same meaning as set forth in
25
Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.
26

"Professional examination" means a competency based

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naturopathic doctor licensing examination as determined by
2
Department rule.
3

"Suggestion" means a technique using:
4

(1) biofeedback;
5

(2) health education; or
6

(3) health counseling.
7

"Telehealth" or "telepractice" means the delivery of
8
services under this Act by using electronic communication,
9
information technologies, or other means between an individual
10
licensed under this Act in one location and a patient or client
11
in another location, with or without an intervening healthcare
12
provider. "Telehealth" or "telepractice" includes direct,
13
interactive patient encounters, asynchronous
14
store-and-forward technologies, and remote monitoring.
15
Telehealth or telepractice is not prohibited under this Act if
16
the provision of telehealth or telepractice services is
17
appropriate for the client and the level of care provided
18
meets the required level of care for that client. Individuals
19
providing services regulated by this Act via telepractice
20
shall comply with and are subject to all licensing and
21
disciplinary provisions of this Act.
22

"Therapeutic substance" means any of the following
23
exemplified in a standard naturopathic medical text, journal,
24
or pharmacopoeia:
25

(1) a vitamin;
26

(2) a mineral;

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(3) a nutraceutical;
2

(4) a botanical medicine;
3

(5) oxygen;
4

(6) a homeopathic medicine;
5

(7) a hormone;
6

(8) a hormonal or pharmaceutical contraceptive device;
7

(9) an enzyme; or
8

(10) other physiologic substance.

9

Section 15.
Qualifications for licensure.
The Board shall
10
license an applicant who:
11

(1) submits, in accordance with rules of the
12

Department, the following items to the Board:
13

(A) an application for licensure designed and
14

approved by the Board and submitted in accordance with
15

rules of the Department;
16

(B) an application fee submitted in an amount and
17

manner established by rules of the Department;
18

(C) evidence that the applicant has graduated from
19

a Council on Naturopathic Medical Education or an
20

equivalent federally recognized accrediting body,
21

approved naturopathic medical education program;
22

(D) evidence that the applicant has passed a
23

professional examination authorized by rule of the
24

Department and administered by the North American
25

Board of Naturopathic Examiners or its successor;

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(E) evidence that the applicant has passed a minor
2

surgery examination authorized by rules of the
3

Department and administered by the North American
4

Board of Naturopathic Examiners or its successor; and
5

(F) evidence that the applicant has passed a
6

jurisprudence examination conducted by the
7

Naturopathic Medical Board;
8

(2) is determined by the Board to be physically and
9

mentally capable of safely practicing naturopathic
10

medicine with or without reasonable accommodation; and
11

(3) has not had a license to practice naturopathic
12

medicine or other health care license, registration, or
13

certificate refused, revoked, or suspended by any other
14

jurisdiction for reasons that relate to the applicant's
15

ability to skillfully and safely practice naturopathic
16

medicine unless that license, registration, or
17

certification has been restored to good standing by that
18

jurisdiction.

19

Section 20.
Approved naturopathic medical educational
20
program.
The Department shall establish, by rule, guidelines
21
for an approved naturopathic medical educational program,
22
which guidelines shall meet the following requirements and the
23
Department's specifications for the education of naturopathic
24
doctors. The approved naturopathic medical educational program
25
shall:

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(1) offer graduate-level, full-time didactic and
2

supervised clinical training;
3

(2) be accredited, or have achieved candidacy status
4

for accreditation, by the Council on Naturopathic Medical
5

Education or an equivalent federally recognized
6

accrediting body for naturopathic medical programs that is
7

also recognized by the Department; and
8

(3) be conducted by an institution of higher
9

education, or a division of an institution of higher
10

education, that:
11

(A) is accredited or is a candidate for
12

accreditation by a regional or national institutional
13

accrediting agency recognized by the United States
14

Secretary of Education or a diploma-granting,
15

degree-equivalent college or university; or
16

(B) meets equivalent standards for recognition of
17

accreditation established by rules of the Department
18

for medical education programs offered in Canada.

19

Section 25.
Display of license.
A licensee shall display
20
the licensee's license in the licensee's place of business in
21
a location clearly visible to the licensee's patients and
22
shall also display evidence of the licensee having completed
23
an approved naturopathic medical educational program.

24

Section 30.
Written collaborative agreements; prescriptive

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authority.
2

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all
3
naturopathic doctors to practice in the State, except as
4
provided in Section 35 and Section 40.
5

(b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the
6
working relationship of the naturopathic doctor with the
7
collaborating physician and shall describe the categories of
8
care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the
9
naturopathic doctor. The written collaborative agreement shall
10
promote the exercise of professional judgment by the
11
naturopathic doctor commensurate with his or her education,
12
training and experience. The services to be provided by the
13
naturopathic doctor shall be services that the collaborating
14
physician is authorized to and generally provides to his or
15
her patients in the normal course of his or her clinical
16
medical practice. The written collaborative agreement need not
17
describe the exact steps that a naturopathic doctor must take
18
with respect to each specific condition, disease, or symptom
19
but must specify which authorized procedures require the
20
presence of the collaborating physician as the procedures are
21
being performed. The relationship under a written
22
collaborative agreement shall not be construed to require the
23
personal presence of a physician at the place where services
24
are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for
25
consultation with the collaborating physician in person or by
26
telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth

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in the written collaborative agreement. For the purposes of
2
this Section, "generally provides to his or her patients in
3
the normal course of his or her clinical medical practice"
4
means services, not specific tasks or duties, the
5
collaborating physician routinely provides individually or
6
through delegation to other persons so that the physician has
7
the experience and ability to collaborate and provide
8
consultation.
9

(c) The written collaborative agreement shall be adequate
10
if a physician:
11

(1) participates in the joint formulation and joint
12

approval of orders or guidelines with the naturopathic
13

doctor and he or she periodically reviews such orders and
14

the services provided patients under such orders in
15

accordance with accepted standards of medical practice and
16

naturopathic doctor practice; and
17

(2) provides consultation at least once a month.
18

(d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement
19
must be available to the Department upon request from both the
20
naturopathic doctor and the collaborating physician.
21

(e) A naturopathic doctor shall inform each collaborating
22
physician of all written collaborative agreements he or she
23
has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating
24
physician upon request.
25

(f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to,
26
delegate prescriptive authority to a naturopathic doctor as

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part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may,
2
but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of,
3
orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of
4
samples of, and dispensing medical devices, over-the-counter
5
medications, legend drugs excluding controlled substances, and
6
other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical
7
and herbal remedies.
8

(g) The collaborating physician shall file with the
9
Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority to a
10
naturopathic doctor and termination of delegation, specifying
11
the authority delegated or terminated. Nothing in this Act
12
shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties
13
by the collaborating physician to a nurse or other
14
appropriately trained persons in accordance with Section 54.2
15
of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
16

(h) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the
17
delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed
18
practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other
19
persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the
20
method of delegation that may be authorized by any means,
21
including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic,
22
standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.
23
Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a
24
naturopathic doctor to provide health care services required
25
by law or rule to be performed by a physician. Nothing in this
26
Act shall be construed to authorize the delegation or

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performance of operative surgery.

2

Section 35.
Written collaborative agreement; temporary
3
practice.
Any naturopathic doctor required to enter into a
4
written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
5
is authorized to continue to practice for up to 90 days after
6
the termination of a written collaborative agreement provided
7
the naturopathic doctor seeks any necessary collaboration at a
8
local hospital and refers patients who require services beyond
9
the training and experience of the naturopathic doctor to a
10
physician or other health care provider.

11

Section 40.
Written collaborative agreement exemptions.
A
12
naturopathic doctor shall be exempt from a written
13
collaborative agreement and granted full practice authority if
14
the naturopathic doctor meets either of the following:
15

(1) possesses a minimum of 2 years practicing in a
16
state with prescriptive authority; or
17

(2) has completed an internship or residency that had
18
a duration of at least one year.

19

Section 45.
Full practice authority.
20

(a) A naturopathic doctor shall be deemed by law to
21
possess the ability to practice without a written
22
collaborative agreement if the naturopathic doctor files with
23
the Department a notarized attestation of completion of at

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least 100 hours of continuing education or training and at
2
least 2,000 hours of clinical experience. Documentation of
3
successful completion of the continuing education hours shall
4
be provided to the Department upon request. Completion of the
5
clinical experience must be attested to by the collaborating
6
physician or physicians or employer and the naturopathic
7
doctor. If the collaborating physician or physicians or
8
employer is unable to attest to the completion of the clinical
9
experience, the Department may accept other evidence of
10
clinical experience as established by rule.
11

(b) The scope of practice of a naturopathic doctor with
12
full practice authority includes the following:
13

(1) all matters included in Section 50;
14

(2) practicing without a written collaborative
15

agreement in all practice settings;
16

(3) authority to prescribe legend drugs, excluding
17

controlled substances, over-the-counter medications, and
18

other preparations, including, but not limited to,
19

botanical and herbal remedies; and
20

(4) use of only local anesthetic.
21

The scope of practice of a naturopathic doctor does not
22
include operative surgery.
23

(c) The Department may adopt rules necessary to administer
24
this Section, including, but not limited to, requiring the
25
completion of forms and the payment of fees.
26

(d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a

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1
naturopathic doctor with full practice authority to provide
2
health care services required by law or rule to be performed by
3
a physician.

4

Section 50.
Scope of practice.
A licensee may practice
5
naturopathic medicine to provide primary care in alignment
6
with naturopathic medical education to:
7

(1) perform physical examinations;
8

(2) order laboratory examinations;
9

(3) order diagnostic imaging studies;
10

(4) interpret the results of laboratory examinations
11

for diagnostic purposes;
12

(5) order and, based on a radiologist's report, take
13

action on diagnostic imaging studies in a manner
14

consistent with naturopathic training;
15

(6) prescribe, administer, dispense, and order food,
16

extracts of food, nutraceuticals, vitamins, amino acids,
17

minerals, enzymes, botanicals and their extracts,
18

botanical medicines, homeopathic medicines, dietary
19

supplements, and nonprescription drugs as defined by the
20

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
21

(7) use routes of administration that include oral,
22

nasal, auricular, subcutaneous, intravenous, transdermal,
23

and intramuscular routes of administration, consistent
24

with the education and training of a naturopathic doctor;
25

(8) perform naturopathic physical medicine;

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(9) employ the use of naturopathic therapy;
2

(10) use therapeutic devices, barrier contraception,
3

hormonal and pharmaceutical contraception, and durable
4

medical equipment; or

5

Section 55.
Referral requirement.
If a patient's medical
6
condition is determined, at the time of evaluation or
7
treatment, to be beyond the scope of practice of a licensee,
8
then the licensee must refer the patient to a physician
9
licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the
10
Medical Practice Act of 1987 or an advanced practice
11
registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

12

Section 56.
Prohibitions.
A licensee shall not:
13

(1) perform major surgery;
14

(2) use general or spinal anesthetics;
15

(3) administer ionizing radioactive substances for
16

therapeutic purposes;
17

(4) perform a surgical procedure using a laser device;
18

(5) perform a surgical procedure involving any of the
19

following areas of the body that extend beyond superficial
20

tissue:
21

(A) eyes;
22

(B) ears;
23

(C) tendons;
24

(D) nerves;

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(E) veins; or
2

(F) arteries;
3

(6) perform a surgical abortion;
4

(7) treat any lesion suspected of malignancy or
5

requiring surgical removal; or
6

(8) perform acupuncture.

7

Section 70.
Exemptions.
Nothing in this Act shall be
8
construed to prohibit or to restrict:
9

(1) the practice of a health care profession by an
10

individual who is licensed, certified, or registered under
11

other laws of this State and who is performing services
12

within the individual's authorized scope of practice;
13

(2) the practice of naturopathic medicine by a student
14

enrolled in an approved naturopathic medical educational
15

program if the practice of naturopathic medicine by a
16

student is performed pursuant to a course of instruction
17

or an assignment from an instructor at an accredited
18

university or college by an instructor duly licensed as a
19

health care provider in this State;
20

(3) any person who sells a vitamin or herb from
21

providing information about the vitamin or herb;
22

(4) the practice of naturopathic medicine by persons
23

who are licensed to practice in any other state or
24

district in the United States and who enter this State to
25

consult with a naturopathic doctor of this State if the

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1

consultation is limited to an examination or
2

recommendation; or
3

(5) any person or practitioner who is not licensed as
4

a naturopathic doctor from recommending ayurvedic
5

medicine, herbal remedies, nutritional advice, homeopathy,
6

or other therapy that is within the scope of practice of
7

naturopathic medicine; however, the person or practitioner
8

shall not:
9

(A) use a title protected pursuant to Section 75;
10

(B) represent or assume the character or
11

appearance of a licensee; or
12

(C) otherwise use a name, title, or other
13

designation that indicates or implies that the person
14

is a licensee.

15

Section 75.
Protected titles.
16

(a) A licensee shall use the title "naturopathic doctor"
17
and the recognized abbreviation "N.D.".
18

(b) A licensee has the exclusive right to use the
19
following terms in reference to the licensee's self:
20

(1) "naturopathic doctor";
21

(2) "doctor of naturopathic medicine";
22

(3) "doctor of naturopathy";
23

(4) "naturopath";
24

(5) "N.D."; and
25

(6) "ND".

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(c) An individual represents the individual's self to be a
2
naturopathic doctor when the individual uses or adopts any of
3
the following terms in reference to the individual's self:
4

(1) "naturopathic doctor";
5

(2) "doctor of naturopathic medicine";
6

(3) "doctor of naturopathy";
7

(4) "naturopath";
8

(5) "N.D."; or
9

(6) "ND".
10

(d) An individual shall not represent the individual's
11
self to the public as a naturopathic doctor, a doctor of
12
naturopathic medicine, a doctor of naturopathy, a naturopath,
13
a naturopathic medical doctor, a naturopathic physician, or as
14
being otherwise authorized to practice naturopathic medicine
15
in this State, unless the individual is a licensee.

16

Section 80.
Naturopathic Medical Board.
17

(a) The Naturopathic Medical Board shall oversee:
18

(1) licensure of naturopathic doctors; and
19

(2) matters relating to training and licensure of
20

naturopathic doctors.
21

(b) Within 180 days after the effective date of this Act,
22
the Governor shall appoint an initial Board consisting of 2
23
members for terms of 4 years each, 3 members for terms of 3
24
years each, and 4 members for terms of 2 years each. The
25
initial Board shall consist of the following voting members:

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(1) 5 licensed naturopathic doctors who are residents
2

of this State;
3

(2) 2 practicing physicians licensed to practice
4

medicine in all of its branches; and
5

(3) 2 public members who are residents of this State,
6

who are not, and never have been, a licensed health care
7

practitioner, and who do not have an interest in
8

naturopathic education, naturopathic medicine, or
9

naturopathic business or practice.
10

Members of the Board may be recommended to the Governor by
11
the Illinois Association of Naturopathic Physicians.
12

(c) As the terms of the initial Board members expire, the
13
Governor shall appoint successors for terms of 4 years each as
14
follows:
15

(1) 5 naturopathic doctors licensed pursuant to this
16

Act;
17

(2) 2 practicing physicians licensed to practice
18

medicine in all of its branches with experience working
19

with naturopathic doctors; and
20

(3) 2 public members that are residents of this State
21

who are not, and never have been, a licensed health care
22

practitioner and who do not have an interest in
23

naturopathic education, naturopathic medicine, or
24

naturopathic business or practice.
25

(d) Within 30 days after the Board is established, the
26
Board shall call the first meeting, at which meeting members

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shall elect a chair. The Board may hold meetings at the call of
2
the chair or at the written request of any 2 members of the
3
Board.
4

(e) Vacancies on the Board shall be filled from a list of
5
not fewer than 3 candidates.
6

(f) A majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum.
7

(g) Members of the Board shall serve without compensation
8
but may, at the discretion of the Board, be reimbursed for
9
their expenses incurred in performing their duties.
10

(h) The Department of Financial and Professional
11
Regulation shall provide administrative and other support to
12
the Board.

13

Section 85.
Board duties.
The Board shall have the
14
following duties:
15

(1) regulating the licensure of naturopathic doctors
16

and determining the hours of continuing education units
17

required for maintaining licensure as a naturopathic
18

doctor;
19

(2) prescribing the manner in which records of
20

examinations and treatments shall be kept and maintained;
21

(3) establishing standards for professional
22

responsibility and conduct;
23

(4) identifying disciplinary actions and circumstances
24

that require disciplinary action;
25

(5) developing a means to provide information to all

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licensees in this State;
2

(6) providing for the investigation of complaints
3

against licensees or persons holding themselves out as
4

naturopathic doctors in this State;
5

(7) providing for the publication of information for
6

the public about licensees and the practice of
7

naturopathic medicine in this State;
8

(8) providing for an orderly process for reinstatement
9

of a license;
10

(9) establishing criteria for advertising or
11

promotional materials;
12

(10) establishing procedures and standards for
13

reviewing licensing examination scores;
14

(11) establishing procedures for reviewing transcripts
15

demonstrating completion of the approved naturopathic
16

medical educational program;
17

(12) establishing and maintaining a list of
18

naturopathic medical education programs that meet the
19

requirements of Section 20;
20

(13) establishing the requirements for issuance and
21

renewal of licenses;
22

(14) creating and conducting the jurisprudence
23

examination; and
24

(15) any other matter necessary to implement this Act.

25

Section 90.
License expiration, renewal, denial,

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revocation, and continuing education.
2

(a) A license issued or renewed pursuant to this Act shall
3
expire in a time frame determined by rule by the Department.
4

(b) The Board may renew the license of any licensee who,
5
upon the expiration of the licensee's license:
6

(1) has submitted an application for renewal;
7

(2) has paid the renewal fee established by rules of
8

the Department;
9

(3) meets the qualifications for licensure set forth
10

in this Act and rules of the Department; and
11

(4) meets the continuing education requirements
12

established by the Board.
13

(c) If the Board intends to refuse to issue or renew,
14
revoke, or suspend a license, the Department shall grant the
15
applicant or licensee an opportunity for a hearing.

16

Section 95.
Grounds for disciplinary action.
17

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may
18
revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
19
disciplinary or nondisciplinary action with regard to any
20
license issued under this Act as the Department may deem
21
proper, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000
22
for each violation, for any one or combination of the
23
following causes:
24

(1) material misstatement in furnishing information to
25

the Department;

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(2) violations of this Act, or the rules adopted under
2

this Act;
3

(3) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
4

finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or
5

sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions,
6

preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge,
7

or first offender probation, under the laws of any
8

jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony;
9

or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is
10

dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of
11

the profession;
12

(4) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
13

obtaining licenses;
14

(5) professional incompetence;
15

(6) aiding or assisting another person in violating
16

any provision of this Act or its rules;
17

(7) failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
18

response to a written request made by the Department;
19

(8) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
20

unprofessional conduct, as defined by rule, of a character
21

likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.
22

(9) habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
23

narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
24

that results in a naturopathic doctor's inability to
25

practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
26

(10) discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or

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foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for
2

discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to
3

those set forth in this Section;
4

(11) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving
5

from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or
6

association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of
7

compensation for any professional services not actually or
8

personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11)
9

affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment
10

arrangements, which may include provisions for
11

compensation, health insurance, pension, or other
12

employment benefits, with persons or entities authorized
13

under this Act for the provision of services within the
14

scope of the licensee's practice under this Act;
15

(12) abandonment of a patient;
16

(13) willfully making or filing false records or
17

reports in the individual's practice, including, but not
18

limited to, false records filed with State agencies or
19

departments;
20

(14) physical illness, or mental illness or impairment
21

that results in the inability to practice the profession
22

with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, including, but
23

not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or
24

loss of motor skill;
25

(15) being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
26

report by the Department of Children and Family Services

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under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and
2

upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
3

licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
4

neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
5

Child Reporting Act;
6

(16) gross negligence resulting in permanent injury or
7

death of a patient;
8

(17) employment of fraud, deception or any unlawful
9

means in applying for or securing a license under this
10

Act;
11

(18) immoral conduct in the commission of any act,
12

such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual
13

exploitation related to the licensee's practice;
14

(19) practicing under a false or assumed name, except
15

as provided by law;
16

(20) making a false or misleading statement regarding
17

the licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the
18

treatment or remedy prescribed by the licensee in the
19

course of treatment;
20

(21) allowing another person to use the licensee's
21

license to practice;
22

(22) prescribing, selling, administering,
23

distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug
24

classified as a controlled substance;
25

(23) a pattern of practice or other behavior that
26

demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under

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this Act;
2

(24) violating State or federal laws or regulations
3

relating to controlled substances or other legend drugs or
4

ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act;
5

(25) failure to establish and maintain records of
6

patient care and treatment as required by law;
7

(26) attempting to subvert or cheat on the required
8

examinations;
9

(27) willfully failing to report an instance of
10

suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or
11

self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and
12

required by the Adult Protective Services Act;
13

(28) being named as an abuser in a verified report by
14

the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective
15

Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing
16

evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or
17

financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the
18

Adult Protective Services Act;
19

(29) failure to report to the Department an adverse
20

final action taken against the individual by another
21

licensing jurisdiction of the United States or a foreign
22

state or country, a peer review body, a health care
23

institution, a professional society or association, a
24

governmental agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court
25

acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would
26

constitute grounds for action under this Section; and

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(30) failure to provide copies of records of patient
2

care or treatment, except as required by law.
3

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
4
without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil
5
Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a
6
return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
7
return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or
8
interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
9
Illinois Department of Revenue, until the requirements of any
10
such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g)
11
of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
12
Illinois.
13

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee
14
is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
15
provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
16
Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will
17
end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
18
longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
19
and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient,
20
and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Department
21
that the licensee be allowed to resume the licensee's
22
practice.
23

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department upon a
24
showing of a possible violation may compel an individual
25
licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for
26
licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical

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1
examination, or both, which may include a substance abuse or
2
sexual offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense
3
of the Department.
4

The Department shall specifically designate the examining
5
physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches
6
or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in
7
providing the mental or physical examination or both. The
8
multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to
9
practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one
10
or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice
11
medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical
12
psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed
13
clinical professional counselors, and other professional and
14
administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the
15
multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to
16
submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to
17
any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to
18
complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but
19
not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological
20
testing, or neuropsychological testing.
21

The Department may order the examining physician or any
22
member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the
23
Department any and all records, including business records,
24
that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any
25
supplemental testing performed.
26

The Department may order the examining physician or any

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member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony
2
concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee
3
or applicant. No information, report, record, or other
4
documents in any way related to the examination shall be
5
excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege
6
relating to communications between the licensee or applicant
7
and the examining physician or any member of the
8
multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the
9
licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for
10
the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary
11
team to provide information, reports, records, or other
12
documents or to provide any testimony regarding the
13
examination and evaluation.
14

The individual to be examined may have, at the
15
individual's own expense, another physician of the
16
individual's choice present during all aspects of this
17
examination. However, that physician shall be present only to
18
observe and may not interfere in any way with the examination.
19

Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical
20
examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic
21
suspension of the individual's license until the individual
22
submits to the examination.
23

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice
24
because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the
25
Department may require that individual to submit to care,
26
counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated

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1
by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for
2
continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or,
3
in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may
4
file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise
5
discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose
6
license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed,
7
disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions,
8
or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms,
9
conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the
10
Secretary for a determination whether the individual shall
11
have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a
12
hearing by the Department.
13

In instances in which the Department immediately suspends
14
a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that
15
person's license must be convened by the Department within 30
16
days after the suspension and completed without appreciable
17
delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the
18
subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
19
regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
20
federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
21
confidentiality of medical records.
22

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
23
this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate
24
to the Department that the individual can resume practice in
25
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
26
provisions of the individual's license.

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(e) An individual or organization acting in good faith,
2
and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this
3
Section by providing a report or other information to the
4
Department, by assisting in the investigation or preparation
5
of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of
6
the Department, or by serving as a member of the Department,
7
shall not be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages
8
as a result of such actions.
9

(f) Members of the Board and the Department shall be
10
indemnified by this State for any actions occurring within the
11
scope of services under the Act, done in good faith and not
12
willful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall
13
defend all such actions unless the Attorney General determines
14
either that there would be a conflict of interest in such
15
representation or that the actions complained of were not in
16
good faith or were willful and wanton.
17

If the Attorney General declines representation, the
18
member has the right to employ counsel of the member's choice,
19
whose fees shall be provided by this State, after approval by
20
the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a
21
court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were
22
willful and wanton.
23

The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days
24
after receipt of notice of the initiation of any action
25
involving services of the Board. Failure to notify the
26
Attorney General constitutes an absolute waiver of the right

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1
to a defense and indemnification.
2

The Attorney General shall determine, within 7 days after
3
receiving such notice, whether the Attorney General will
4
undertake to represent the member.

5

Section 100.
Investigation; notice; hearing.
The
6
Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of
7
any person or persons holding or claiming to hold a license.
8
The Department shall, before suspending, revoking, placing on
9
probationary status, or taking any other disciplinary action
10
as the Department may deem proper with regard to any license,
11
at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify
12
the licensee in writing of any charges made and the time and
13
place for a hearing of the charges before the Department,
14
direct the licensee to file the licensee's written answer
15
thereto to the Department under oath within 20 days after the
16
service on the licensee of such notice and inform the licensee
17
that if the licensee fails to file such answer, default will be
18
taken against the licensee and the license may be suspended,
19
revoked, placed on probationary status, or have other
20
disciplinary action, including limiting the scope, nature or
21
extent of the licensee's practice, as the Department may deem
22
proper taken with regard thereto. Written or electronic notice
23
may be served by personal delivery, email, or mail to the
24
applicant or licensee at the licensee's address of record or
25
email address of record. At the time and place fixed in the

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1
notice, the Department shall proceed to hear the charges and
2
the parties or their counsel shall be accorded ample
3
opportunity to present such statements, testimony, evidence,
4
and argument as may be pertinent to the charges or to the
5
defense thereto. The Department may continue such hearing from
6
time to time. In case the applicant or licensee, after
7
receiving notice, fails to file an answer, the licensee's
8
license may in the discretion of the Secretary, having
9
received first the recommendation of the Department, be
10
suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or the
11
Department may take whatever disciplinary action as the
12
Department may deem proper, including limiting the scope,
13
nature, or extent of such person's practice, without a
14
hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient
15
grounds for such action under this Act.

16

Section 105.
Record of proceedings.
The Department, at its
17
expense, shall preserve a record of all proceedings at the
18
formal hearing of any case involving the refusal to issue or
19
renew a license or discipline a licensee. The notice of
20
hearing, complaint, and all other documents in the nature of
21
pleadings and written motions filed in the proceedings, the
22
transcript of testimony, the report of the Department, and
23
orders of the Department shall be the record of such
24
proceeding.

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1

Section 110.
Confidentiality.
All information collected by
2
the Department in the course of an examination or
3
investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not
4
limited to, any complaint against a licensee filed with the
5
Department and information collected to investigate any such
6
complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the
7
Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department shall
8
not disclose the information to anyone other than law
9
enforcement officials, regulatory agencies that have an
10
appropriate regulatory interest as determined by the
11
Department, or a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the
12
Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal,
13
State, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be
14
disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or
15
person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the
16
Department or any order issued by the Department against a
17
licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as
18
otherwise prohibited by law.

19

Section 115.
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.
The
20
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is expressly adopted and
21
incorporated herein as if all of the provisions of that Act
22
were included in this Act, except that the provision of
23
paragraph (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative
24
Procedure Act, which provides that at hearings the licensee or
25
person holding a license has the right to show compliance with

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1
all lawful requirements for retention or continuation of the
2
license, is specifically excluded. For the purpose of this
3
Act, the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois
4
Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when
5
personally served, mailed to the address of record of the
6
applicant or licensee, or emailed to the email address of
7
record of the applicant or licensee.

8

Section 116.
The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended
9
by changing Section 54.5 as follows:

10

(225 ILCS 60/54.5)
11

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)
12

Sec. 54.5.
Physician delegation of authority to physician
13
assistants, advanced practice registered nurses without full
14
practice authority,
and
prescribing psychologists
, and
15
naturopathic doctors without full practice authority
.
16

(a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
17
branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
18
physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
19
requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
20
A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches
21
may enter into collaborative agreements with no more than 7
22
full-time equivalent physician assistants, except in a
23
hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment
24
center as set forth by Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant

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1
Practice Act of 1987 and as provided in subsection (a-5).
2

(a-5) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
3
branches may collaborate with more than 7 physician assistants
4
when the services are provided in a federal primary care
5
health professional shortage area with a Health Professional
6
Shortage Area score greater than or equal to 12, as determined
7
by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
8

The collaborating physician must keep appropriate
9
documentation of meeting this exemption and make it available
10
to the Department upon request.
11

(b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
12
branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an
13
advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with the
14
requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for
15
the purpose of providing medical consultation, and no
16
employment relationship is required. A written collaborative
17
agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35
18
of the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement
19
shall be for services for which the collaborating physician
20
can provide adequate collaboration. A written collaborative
21
agreement shall be adequate with respect to collaboration with
22
advanced practice registered nurses if all of the following
23
apply:
24

(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise
25

of professional judgment by the advanced practice
26

registered nurse commensurate with his or her education

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1

and experience.
2

(2) The advanced practice registered nurse provides
3

services based upon a written collaborative agreement with
4

the collaborating physician, except as set forth in
5

subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to labor
6

and delivery, the collaborating physician must provide
7

delivery services in order to participate with a certified
8

nurse midwife.
9

(3) Methods of communication are available with the
10

collaborating physician in person or through
11

telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and
12

referral as needed to address patient care needs.
13

(b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to
14
practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a
15
certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with
16
Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of
17
anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of
18
anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or
19
physician shall have training and experience in the delivery
20
of anesthesia services consistent with Department rules.
21
Collaboration shall be adequate if:
22

(1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in
23

the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
24

guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the
25

services provided patients under such orders; and
26

(2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or

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1

physician participates through discussion of and agreement
2

with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and
3

available on the premises during the delivery of
4

anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and
5

treatment of emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia
6

services in a hospital shall be conducted in accordance
7

with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an
8

ambulatory surgical treatment center in accordance with
9

Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center
10

Act.
11

(b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must
12
agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of
13
services.
14

(c) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
15
branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with a
16
naturopathic doctor in accordance with the requirements of the
17
Naturopathic Medical Practice Act. Collaboration shall be for
18
the purpose of providing medical consultation and an
19
employment relationship shall not be required. A written
20
collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of
21
Section 30 of the Naturopathic Medical Practice Act. The
22
written collaborative agreement shall be for services for
23
which the collaborating physician can provide adequate
24
collaboration. A written collaborative agreement shall be
25
adequate with respect to collaboration with naturopathic
26
doctors if all of the following apply:

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(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise
2

of professional judgment by the naturopathic doctor
3

commensurate with his or her education and experience.
4

(2) The naturopathic doctor provides services based
5

upon a written collaborative agreement with the
6

collaborating physician.
7

(3) Methods of communication with the collaborating
8

physician are available in person or through
9

telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and
10

referral as needed to address patient care needs.

11

(d)

(c)
The collaborating physician shall have access to
12
the medical records of all patients attended
to
by a physician
13
assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to
14
the medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced
15
practice registered nurse.
The collaborating physician shall
16
have access to the medical records of all patients attended to
17
by a naturopathic doctor.
18

(d) (Blank).
19

(e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
20
omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant,
21
or
advanced practice registered nurse
, or naturopathic doctor

22
solely on the basis of having signed a supervision agreement
23
or guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an order, a
24
standing medical order, a standing delegation order, or other
25
order or guideline authorizing a prescribing psychologist,
26
physician assistant,
or
advanced practice registered nurse
, or

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1
naturopathic doctor
to perform acts, unless the physician has
2
reason to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician
3
assistant,
or
advanced practice registered nurse
, or
4
naturopathic doctor
lacked the competency to perform the act
5
or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
6

(f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to,
7
delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice
8
registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement,
9
and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to
10
the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
11

(g) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to,
12
delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as
13
part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation
14
of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
15
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
16

(h) (Blank).
17

(i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive
18
authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written
19
collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive
20
authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of
21
the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
22

(j) As set forth in Section 22.2 of this Act, a licensee
23
under this Act may not directly or indirectly divide, share,
24
or split any professional fee or other form of compensation
25
for professional services with anyone in exchange for a
26
referral or otherwise, other than as provided in Section 22.2.

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(k) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to,
2
delegate prescriptive authority to a naturopathic doctor as
3
part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation
4
of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
5
Section 30 of the Naturopathic Medical Practice Act.

6
(Source: P.A. 103-228, eff. 1-1-24
.)

7

Section 120.
The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is
8
amended by changing Section 102 as follows:

9

(720 ILCS 570/102)

(from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
10

Sec. 102.
Definitions.
As used in this Act, unless the
11
context otherwise requires:
12

(a) "Person with a substance use disorder" means any
13
person who has a substance use disorder diagnosis defined as a
14
spectrum of persistent and recurring problematic behavior that
15
encompasses 10 separate classes of drugs: alcohol; caffeine;
16
cannabis; hallucinogens; inhalants; opioids; sedatives,
17
hypnotics and anxiolytics; stimulants; and tobacco; and other
18
unknown substances leading to clinically significant
19
impairment or distress.
20

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a
21
controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,
22
ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,
23
research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane
24
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

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(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his
2

or her authorized agent),
3

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
4

order, or
5

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
6

Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
7

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf
8
of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,
9
dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a
10
common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
11
the carrier or warehouseman.
12

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal
13
substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
14
testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,
15
corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
16

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
17

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
18

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,
19

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],
20

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),
21

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],
22

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),
23

(vi) 4-androstenediol
24

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),
25

(vii) 5-androstenediol
26

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

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(viii) 1-androstenedione
2

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),
3

(ix) 4-androstenedione
4

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),
5

(x) 5-androstenedione
6

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),
7

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-
8

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
9

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-
10

1,4,-diene-3-one),
11

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-
12

diene-3,17-dione),
13

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17
14

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
15

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-
16

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
17

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-
18

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-
19

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),
20

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone
21

(17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]
22

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),
23

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.
24

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-
25

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
26

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

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1

androstan-3-one),
2

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-
3

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
4

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-
5

hydroxyestr-4-ene),
6

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-
7

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
8

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],
9

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),
10

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
11

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),
12

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one,
13

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-
14

androst-4-en-3-one),
15

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-
16

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),
17

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
18

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),
19

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
20

[5a]-androstan-3-one),
21

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
22

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),
23

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-
24

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),
25

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
26

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

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(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-
2

dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
3

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy
4

-5a-androstane,
5

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-
6

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),
7

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-
8

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
9

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
10

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),
11

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
12

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),
13

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
14

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
15

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-
16

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
17

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone
18

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-
19

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-
20

1-testosterone'),
21

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
22

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-
23

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),
24

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-
25

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),
26

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

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1

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),
2

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-
3

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),
4

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione
5

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),
6

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-
7

en-3,17-dione),
8

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-
9

en-3,17-dione),
10

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-
11

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),
12

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-
13

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
14

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-
15

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
16

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
17

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
18

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
19

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
20

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-
21

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
22

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-
23

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
24

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
25

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),
26

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
2

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-
3

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic
4

acid lactone),
5

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-
6

4-en-3-one),
7

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-
8

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-
9

4,9,11-trien-3-one),
10

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,
11

11-trien-3-one).
12

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an
13
anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,
14
distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to
15
deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is
16
expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered
17
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
18
which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human
19
Services for such administration, and which the person intends
20
to administer or have administered through such implants,
21
shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to
22
unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or
23
possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
24
purposes of this Act.
25

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement
26
Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1
successor agency.
2

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"
3
means a Department of Human Services administrative employee
4
licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances
5
who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human
6
Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription
7
Information Library.
8

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
9
components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
10
prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on
11
the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course
12
of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or
13
incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not
14
for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation
15
of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription
16
drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
17
patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
18
for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the
19
following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is
20
not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in
21
a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
22
prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
23
compounded.
24

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or
25
immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from
26
another Schedule or otherwise.

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance,
2
immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of
3
Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or
4
immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by
5
the Department through administrative rule. The term does not
6
include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco,
7
as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of
8
1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
9

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
10

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
11

similar to the chemical structure of a controlled
12

substance in Schedule I or II;
13

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
14

hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that
15

is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,
16

depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
17

nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or
18

II; or
19

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such
20

person represents or intends to have a stimulant,
21

depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
22

nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater
23

than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect
24

on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in
25

Schedule I or II.
26

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1
which, or the container or labeling of which, without
2
authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other
3
identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness
4
thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other
5
than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or
6
dispensed the substance.
7

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive
8
or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,
9
with or without consideration, whether or not there is an
10
agency relationship. "Deliver" or "delivery" does not include
11
the donation of drugs to the extent permitted under the
12
Illinois Drug Reuse Opportunity Program Act.
13

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
14
Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and
15
Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
16

(j) (Blank).
17

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of
18
Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
19

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"
20
means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
21
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
22

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall
23
depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes
24
impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
25
habit-forming or lead to a substance misuse or substance use
26
disorder, including, but not limited to, alcohol, cannabis and

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1
its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and
2
their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids
3
(natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate
4
and similar sedative hypnotics.
5

(n) (Blank).
6

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State
7
Police or his or her designated agents.
8

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to
9
an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the
10
lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,
11
administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary
12
to prepare the substance for that delivery.
13

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
14

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by
15
administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
16

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
17

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the
18
official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic
19
Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National
20
Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances
21
intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or
22
prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other
23
than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
24
the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use
25
as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or
26
(3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their

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1
components, parts, or accessories.
2

(t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an
3
electronic record of health-related information on an
4
individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted
5
by authorized health care clinicians and staff.
6

(t-3.5) "Electronic health record system" or "EHR system"
7
means any computer-based system or combination of federally
8
certified Health IT Modules (defined at 42 CFR 170.102 or its
9
successor) used as a repository for electronic health records
10
and accessed or updated by a prescriber or authorized
11
surrogate in the ordinary course of his or her medical
12
practice. For purposes of connecting to the Prescription
13
Information Library maintained by the Bureau of Pharmacy and
14
Clinical Support Systems or its successor, an EHR system may
15
connect to the Prescription Information Library directly or
16
through all or part of a computer program or system that is a
17
federally certified Health IT Module maintained by a third
18
party and used by the EHR system to secure access to the
19
database.
20

(t-4) "Emergency medical services personnel" has the
21
meaning ascribed to it in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
22
Systems Act.
23

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the
24
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
25
purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control
26
facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1
Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,
2
store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
3
Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal
4
euthanasia.
5

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule
6
III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are
7
used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal
8
euthanasia.
9

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a
10
controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course
11
of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his
12
or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that
13
individual's physical or psychological dependence upon a
14
controlled substance, except as provided herein: and
15
application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the
16
dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
17
prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the
18
pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by
19
accepted professional standards, including, but not limited
20
to, the following, in making the judgment:
21

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
22

relationship,
23

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
24

prescriber for large numbers of patients,
25

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
26

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be

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1

clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual
2

dose may be used legitimately),
3

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
4

pharmacist and prescriber,
5

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
6

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly
7
altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any
8
type.
9

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by
10
a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration
11
to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility,
12
or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,
13
intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
14

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the Illinois State
15
Police or its successor agency.
16

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
17

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
18

designated as being a principal compound used, or produced
19

primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled
20

substance;
21

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used
22

or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled
23

substance; and
24

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
25

curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled
26

substance.

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1

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,
2
educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled
3
substances within educational facilities approved by the State
4
Board of Education or its successor agency.
5

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,
6
County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
7

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a
8
controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit
9
appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack
10
thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical
11
characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
12
person to believe that the substance is a controlled
13
substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be
14
a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances
15
which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the
16
substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of
17
determining whether the representations made or the
18
circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable
19
person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance
20
under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other
21
authority may consider the following factors in addition to
22
any other factor that may be relevant:
23

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control
24

of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
25

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the
26

substance may be resold for profit;

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1

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
2

normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled
3

substances;
4

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution
5

included an exchange of or demand for money or other
6

property as consideration, and whether the amount of the
7

consideration was substantially greater than the
8

reasonable retail market value of the substance.
9

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a
10
noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was
11
initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial
12
introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its
13
finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
14

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or
15
distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized
16
to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this
17
Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried
18
out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances
19
involved were controlled substances.
20

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits
21
the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,
22
processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug
23
or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of
24
the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
25

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is
26
located in a state of the United States that delivers,

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1
dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal
2
Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any
3
substance which requires a prescription.
4

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,
5
propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a
6
controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
7
directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of
8
natural origin, or independently by means of chemical
9
synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
10
synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the
11
substance or labeling of its container, except that this term
12
does not include:
13

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or
14

compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own
15

use;
16

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
17

under his or her supervision, the preparation,
18

compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled
19

substance:
20

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or
21

dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of
22

his or her professional practice; or
23

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or
24

chemical analysis and not for sale; or
25

(3) the packaging, repackaging, or labeling of drugs
26

only to the extent permitted under the Illinois Drug Reuse

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1

Opportunity Program Act.
2

(z-1) (Blank).
3

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited
4
under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
5

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician
6
assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe
7
through a written delegation of authority by a physician
8
licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in
9
accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant
10
Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice registered
11
nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a
12
written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to
13
practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric
14
physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse
15
Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse
16
certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical
17
nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe
18
by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of
19
the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or
20
(v) a prescribing psychologist.
21

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether
22
produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances
23
of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical
24
synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
25
synthesis:
26

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,

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1

including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts
2

of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of
3

such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
4

the specific chemical designation; however the term
5

"narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline
6

alkaloids of opium;
7

(2) (blank);
8

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
9

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
10

coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine
11

and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts,
12

have been removed;
13

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,
14

and salts of isomers;
15

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
16

and salts of isomers;
17

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
18

contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to
19

in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
20

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
21
Nurse Practice Act.
22

(cc) (Blank).
23

(dd) "Opiate" means a drug derived from or related to
24
opium.
25

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
26
somniferum L., except its seeds.

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1

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or
2
solution or other liquid form of medication intended for
3
administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form
4
of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal
5
administration.
6

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon
7
Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
8

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
9
mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or
10
agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or
11
association, or any other entity.
12

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or
13
certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a
14
local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant
15
pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
16

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in
17
which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the
18
Pharmacy Practice Act.
19

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited
20
under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
21

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise
22
requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all
23
of its branches.
24

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of
25
the opium poppy, after mowing.
26

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice

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1
medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric
2
physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,
3
physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse,
4
licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, emergency medical
5
services personnel, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or
6
other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully
7
permitted by the United States or this State to distribute,
8
dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use
9
in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in
10
the course of professional practice or research.
11

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written
12
prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated
13
prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written
14
prescription that is individually generated by machine or
15
computer in the prescriber's office.
16

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice
17
medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist,
18
prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the
19
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive
20
authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical
21
Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
22
veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant
23
who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
24
accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
25
written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of
26
the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced

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1
practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority
2
delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in
3
accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
4
written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the
5
Nurse Practice Act, an advanced practice registered nurse
6
certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical
7
nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe
8
by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of
9
the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05,
10
or
an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse
11
practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who
12
has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the
13
Nurse Practice Act
, or a naturopathic doctor with prescriptive
14
authority delegated under Section 30 of the Naturopathic
15
Medical Practice Act or who has full practice authority
16
pursuant to Section 40 or Section 45 of the Naturopathic
17
Medical Practice Act
.
18

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral
19
order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable
20
federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice
21
medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or
22
veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist
23
in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric
24
Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed
25
under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act
26
with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the

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1
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant
2
for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05,
3
a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement
4
required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice
5
Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered nurse with
6
prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the
7
Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled
8
substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written
9
delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under
10
Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, of an advanced
11
practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner,
12
nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been
13
granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in
14
accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in
15
accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law,
or
of an
16
advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse
17
practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who
18
has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the
19
Nurse Practice Act
, or of a naturopathic doctor with
20
prescriptive authority delegated under Section 30 of the
21
Naturopathic Medical Practice Act or who has full practice
22
authority pursuant to Section 40 or Section 45 of the
23
Naturopathic Medical Practice Act
.
24

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an
25
electronic library that contains reported controlled substance
26
data.

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the
2
entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on
3
controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section
4
316.
5

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,
6
planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled
7
substance other than methamphetamine.
8

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to
9
register under Section 302 of this Act.
10

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each
11
person authorized to handle controlled substances under the
12
laws of the United States and of this State.
13

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either
14
the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the
15
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the
16
Secretary's designated agents.
17

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,
18
district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,
19
and any area subject to the legal authority of the United
20
States of America.
21

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an
22
overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)
23
causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
24
habit-forming or lead to a substance use disorder, including,
25
but not limited to, amphetamines and their analogs,
26
methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine

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LRB104 10056 AAS 20127 b
1
and its analogs.
2

(rr-10) "Synthetic drug" includes, but is not limited to,
3
any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any synthetic
4
cathinones as provided for in Schedule I.
5

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses
6
a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of
7
a member of his or her household or for administering to an
8
animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her
9
household.
10
(Source: P.A. 102-389, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21;
11
102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-881, eff. 1-1-25
.)

12

Section 999.
Effective date.
This Act takes effect upon
13
becoming law.

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