Plain English Breakdown
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HF4354 • 2026
Direct Care and Treatment data requirements modified, classification for employees established, patient consent procedures modified, voluntary patient transfer procedures modified, and technical corrections made.
This bill passed both chambers and reached final enrollment, even if later executive action is not shown here.
The plain English breakdown is still being put together. The official documents below are already here.
Introduction and first reading, referred to Human Services Finance and Policy
Direct Care and Treatment data requirements modified, classification for employees established, patient consent procedures modified, voluntary patient transfer procedures modified, and technical corrections made.
A bill for an act relating to state-operated human services; modifying Direct Care and Treatment data requirements; establishing classification alignment for Direct Care and Treatment employees; modifying Direct Care and Treatment procedures for patient consent to medical procedures; modifying voluntary patient transfer procedures; making technical corrections; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 3.7381; 13.04, subdivision 4a; 13.384, subdivision 1; 13.46, subdivision 1; 182.6545; 253B.03, subdivision 6; 253B.18, subdivision 14; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 13.46, subdivision 2; 253B.18, subdivision 6; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 246C. BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA: Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 3.7381, is amended to read: 3.7381 LOSS, DAMAGE, OR DESTRUCTION OF PROPERTY; STATE INSTITUTIONS; CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES. (a) The commissioners of deleted text begin human services, deleted text end veterans affairs deleted text begin , deleted text end or corrections new text begin or the Direct Care and Treatment executive board new text end , as appropriate, shall determine, adjust, and settle, at any time, claims and demands of $7,000 or less arising from negligent loss, damage, or destruction of property of a patient of a state institution under the control of the Direct Care and Treatment executive board or the commissioner of veterans affairs or an inmate of a state correctional facility. (b) A claim of more than $7,000, or a claim that was not paid by the appropriate department new text begin or agency new text end may be presented to, heard, and determined by the appropriate committees of the senate and the house of representatives and, if approved, shall be paid pursuant to legislative claims procedure. (c) The procedure established by this section is exclusive of all other legal, equitable, and statutory remedies. Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.04, subdivision 4a, is amended to read: Subd. 4a. Sex offender program data; challenges. Notwithstanding subdivision 4, challenges to the accuracy or completeness of data maintained by the Direct Care and Treatment sex offender program about a civilly committed sex offender as defined in section 246B.01, subdivision 1a , must be submitted in writing to the data practices compliance official of Direct Care and Treatment new text begin or a designee new text end . The data practices compliance official new text begin or a designee new text end must respond to the challenge as provided in this section. Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.384, subdivision 1, is amended to read: Subdivision 1. deleted text begin Definition deleted text end new text begin Definitions new text end . As used in this section: (a) "Directory information" means name of the patient, date admitted, and general condition. (b) "Medical data" are data collected because an individual was or is a patient or client of a hospital, nursing home, medical center, clinic, health or nursing agency operated by a government entity including business and financial records, data provided by private health care facilities, and data provided by or about relatives of the individual. new text begin Medical data does not include data collected, maintained, used, or disseminated by Direct Care and Treatment. new text end Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.46, subdivision 1, is amended to read: Subdivision 1. Definitions. As used in this section: (a) "Individual" means an individual according to section 13.02, subdivision 8 , but does not include a vendor of services. (b) "Program" includes all programs for which authority is vested in a component of the welfare system according to statute or federal law, including but not limited to Native American Tribe programs that provide a service component of the welfare system, the Minnesota family investment program, medical assistance, general assistance, general assistance medical care formerly codified in chapter 256D, the child care assistance program, and child support collections. (c) "Welfare system" includes the Department of Human Services; Direct Care and Treatment; the Department of Children, Youth, and Families; local social services agencies; county welfare agencies; county public health agencies; county veteran services agencies; county housing agencies; private licensing agencies; the public authority responsible for child support enforcement; human services boards; community mental health center boards, state hospitals, state nursing homes, the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities; Native American Tribes to the extent a Tribe provides a service component of the welfare system; and persons, agencies, institutions, organizations, and other entities under contract to any of the above agencies to the extent specified in the contract. (d) "Mental health data" means data on individual clients and patients of community mental health centers, established under section 245.62 , mental health divisions of counties and other providers under contract to deliver mental health services, deleted text begin Direct Care and Treatment mental health services, deleted text end or the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities. (e) "Fugitive felon" means a person who has been convicted of a felony and who has escaped from confinement or violated the terms of probation or parole for that offense. (f) "Private licensing agency" means an agency licensed by the commissioner of children, youth, and families under chapter 142B to perform the duties under section 142B.30 . Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 13.46, subdivision 2, is amended to read: Subd. 2. General. (a) Data on individuals collected, maintained, used, or disseminated by the welfare system are private data on individuals, and shall not be disclosed except: (1) according to section 13.05 ; (2) according to court order; (3) according to a statute specifically authorizing access to the private data; (4) to an agent or investigator acting on behalf of a county, the state, or the federal government, including a law enforcement person or attorney in the investigation or prosecution of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding relating to the administration of a program; (5) to personnel of the welfare system who require the data to verify an individual's identity; determine eligibility, amount of assistance, and the need to provide services to an individual or family across programs; coordinate services for an individual or family; evaluate the effectiveness of programs; assess parental contribution amounts; and investigate suspected fraud; (6) to administer federal funds or programs; (7) between personnel of the welfare system working in the same program; (8) to the Department of Revenue to administer and evaluate tax refund or tax credit programs and to identify individuals who may benefit from these programs, and prepare the databases for reports required under section 270C.13 and Laws 2008, chapter 366, article 17, section 6. The following information may be disclosed under this paragraph: an individual's and their dependent's names, dates of birth, Social Security or individual taxpayer identification numbers, income, addresses, and other data as required, upon request by the Department of Revenue. Disclosures by the commissioner of revenue to the commissioner of human services for the purposes described in this clause are governed by section 270B.14, subdivision 1 . Tax refund or tax credit programs include, but are not limited to, the dependent care credit under section 290.067 , the Minnesota working family credit under section 290.0671 , the property tax refund under section 290A.04 , and the Minnesota education credit under section 290.0674 ; (9) between the Department of Human Services; the Department of Employment and Economic Development; the Department of Children, Youth, and Families; Direct Care and Treatment; and, when applicable, the Department of Education, for the following purposes: (i) to monitor the eligibility of the data subject for unemployment benefits, for any employment or training program administered, supervised, or certified by that agency; (ii) to administer any rehabilitation program or child care assistance program, whether alone or in conjunction with the welfare system; (iii) to monitor and evaluate the Minnesota family investment program or the child care assistance program by exchanging data on recipients and former recipients of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) benefits, cash assistance under chapter 142F, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child care assistance under chapter 142E, medical programs under chapter 256B or 256L; and (iv) to analyze public assistance employment services and program utilization, cost, effectiveness, and outcomes as implemented under the authority established in Title II, Sections 201-204 of the Ticket to Work and Work Incentives Improvement Act of 1999. Health records governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298 and "protected health information" as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 160.103, and governed by Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, parts 160-164, including health care claims utilization information, must not be exchanged under this clause; (10) to appropriate parties in connection with an emergency if knowledge of the information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the individual or other individuals or persons; (11) data maintained by residential programs as defined in section 245A.02 may be disclosed to the protection and advocacy system established in this state according to Part C of Public Law 98-527 to protect the legal and human rights of persons with developmental disabilities or other related conditions who live in residential facilities for these persons if the protection and advocacy system receives a complaint by or on behalf of that person and the person does not have a legal guardian or the state or a designee of the state is the legal guardian of the person; (12) to the county medical examiner or the county coroner for identifying or locating relatives or friends of a deceased person; (13) data on a child support obligor who makes payments to the public agency may be disclosed to the Minnesota Office of Higher Education to the extent necessary to determine eligibility under section 136A.121, subdivision 2 , clause (5); (14) participant Social Security or individual taxpayer identification numbers and names collected by the telephone assistance program may be disclosed to the Department of Revenue to conduct an electronic data match with the property tax refund database to determine eligibility under section 237.70, subdivision 4a ; (15) the current address of a Minnesota family investment program participant may be disclosed to law enforcement officers who provide the name of the participant and notify the agency that: (i) the participant: (A) is a fugitive felon fleeing to avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, for a crime or attempt to commit a crime that is a felony under the laws of the jurisdiction from which the individual is fleeing; or (B) is violating a condition of probation or parole imposed under state or federal law; (ii) the location or apprehension of the felon is within the law enforcement officer's official duties; and (iii) the request is made in writing and in the proper exercise of those duties; (16) the current address of a recipient of general assistance may be disclosed to probation officers and corrections agents who are supervising the recipient and to law enforcement officers who are investigating the recipient in connection with a felony level offense; (17) information obtained from a SNAP applicant or recipient households may be disclosed to local, state, or federal law enforcement officials, upon their written request, for the purpose of investigating an alleged violation of the Food and Nutrition Act, according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 272.1(c); (18) the address, Social Security or individual taxpayer identification number, and, if available, photograph of any member of a household receiving SNAP benefits shall be made available, on request, to a local, state, or federal law enforcement officer if the officer furnishes the agency with the name of the member and notifies the agency that: (i) the member: (A) is fleeing to avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, for a crime or attempt to commit a crime that is a felony in the jurisdiction the member is fleeing; (B) is violating a condition of probation or parole imposed under state or federal law; or (C) has information that is necessary for the officer to conduct an official duty related to conduct described in subitem (A) or (B); (ii) locating or apprehending the member is within the officer's official duties; and (iii) the request is made in writing and in the proper exercise of the officer's official duty; (19) the current address of a recipient of Minnesota family investment program, general assistance, or SNAP benefits may be disclosed to law enforcement officers who, in writing, provide the name of the recipient and notify the agency that the recipient is a person required to register under section 243.166 , but is not residing at the address at which the recipient is registered under section 243.166 ; (20) certain information regarding child support obligors who are in arrears may be made public according to section 518A.74 ; (21) data on child support payments made by a child support obligor and data on the distribution of those payments excluding identifying information on obligees may be disclosed to all obligees to whom the obligor owes support, and data on the enforcement actions undertaken by the public authority, the status of those actions, and data on the income of the obligor or obligee may be disclosed to the other party; (22) data in the work reporting system may be disclosed under section 142A.29, subdivision 7 ; (23) to the Department of Education for the purpose of matching Department of Education student data with public assistance data to determine students eligible for free and reduced-price meals, meal supplements, and free milk according to United States Code, title 42, sections 1758, 1761, 1766, 1766a, 1772, and 1773; to allocate federal and state funds that are distributed based on income of the student's family; and to verify receipt of energy assistance for the telephone assistance plan; (24) the current address and telephone number of program recipients and emergency contacts may be released to the commissioner of health or a community health board as defined in section 145A.02, subdivision 5 , when the commissioner or community health board has reason to believe that a program recipient is a disease case, carrier, suspect case, or at risk of illness, and the data are necessary to locate the person; (25) to other state agencies, statewide systems, and political subdivisions of this state, including the attorney general, and agencies of other states, interstate information networks, federal agencies, and other entities as required by federal regulation or law for the administration of the child support enforcement program; (26) to personnel of public assistance programs as defined in section 518A.81 , for access to the child support system database for the purpose of administration, including monitoring and evaluation of those public assistance programs; (27) to monitor and evaluate the Minnesota family investment program by exchanging data between the Departments of Human Services; Children, Youth, and Families; and Education, on recipients and former recipients of SNAP benefits, cash assistance under chapter 142F, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child care assistance under chapter 142E, medical programs under chapter 256B or 256L, or a medical program formerly codified under chapter 256D; (28) to evaluate child support program performance and to identify and prevent fraud in the child support program by exchanging data between the Department of Human Services; Department of Children, Youth, and Families; Department of Revenue under section 270B.14, subdivision 1 , paragraphs (a) and (b), without regard to the limitation of use in paragraph (c); Department of Health; Department of Employment and Economic Development; and other state agencies as is reasonably necessary to perform these functions; (29) counties and the Department of Children, Youth, and Families operating child care assistance programs under chapter 142E may disseminate data on program participants, applicants, and providers to the commissioner of education; (30) child support data on the child, the parents, and relatives of the child may be disclosed to agencies administering programs under titles IV-B and IV-E of the Social Security Act, as authorized by federal law; (31) to a health care provider governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298 , to the extent necessary to coordinate services; (32) to the chief administrative officer of a school to coordinate services for a student and family; data that may be disclosed under this clause are limited to name, date of birth, gender, and address; (33) to county correctional agencies to the extent necessary to coordinate services and diversion programs; data that may be disclosed under this clause are limited to name, client demographics, program, case status, and county worker information; or (34) between the Department of Human Services and the Metropolitan Council for the following purposes: (i) to coordinate special transportation service provided under section 473.386 with services for people with disabilities and elderly individuals funded by or through the Department of Human Services; and (ii) to provide for reimbursement of special transportation service provided under section 473.386 . The data that may be shared under this clause are limited to the individual's first, last, and middle names; date of birth; residential address; and program eligibility status with expiration date for the purposes of informing the other party of program eligibility. (b) Information on persons who have been treated for substance use disorder may only be disclosed according to the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, sections 2.1 to 2.67. (c) Data provided to law enforcement agencies under paragraph (a), clause (15), (16), (17), or (18), or paragraph (b), are investigative data and are confidential or protected nonpublic while the investigation is active. The data are private after the investigation becomes inactive under section 13.82, subdivision 7 , clause (a) or (b). (d) Mental health data shall be treated as provided in subdivisions 7, 8, and 9, but are not subject to the access provisions of subdivision 10, paragraph (b). new text begin (e) new text end For the purposes of this subdivision, a request deleted text begin will be deleted text end new text begin is new text end deemed to be made in writing if made through a computer interface system. new text begin (f) Direct Care and Treatment may disclose data pursuant to this subdivision regardless of any restrictions on disclosure of that data under sections 144.291 to 144.298. new text end new text begin (g) Notwithstanding section 144.2925, Direct Care and Treatment may disclose data as permitted by law. new text end new text begin (h) Direct Care and Treatment is not required to share with federal law enforcement data on individuals collected, maintained, used, or disseminated by Direct Care and Treatment that relate to the reporting of suspected crime unless specifically required to do so by a Minnesota or federal law. new text end new text begin (i) Direct Care and Treatment may disclose welfare system data held by the agency to facilitate coordination of guardianship services for Direct Care and Treatment clients, including but not limited to making disclosures in guardianship proceedings, identifying potential guardians, communicating with guardianship legal representation, and reporting complaints to the Minnesota Judicial Branch or the Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities. Direct Care and Treatment must obtain the client's consent to the disclosure except when the client: new text end new text begin (1) lacks capacity to provide the consent; or new text end new text begin (2) has a current legal guardian who is unavailable, is nonresponsive, or refuses to authorize the disclosure in relation to complaints to the Minnesota Judicial Branch or Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities. new text end Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 182.6545, is amended to read: 182.6545 RIGHTS OF NEXT OF KIN UPON DEATH. In the case of a death of an employee, the department shall make reasonable efforts to locate the employee's next of kin and shall mail to them copies of the following: (1) citations and notification of penalty; (2) notices of hearings; (3) complaints and answers; (4) settlement agreements; (5) orders and decisions; and (6) notices of appeals. In addition, the next of kin shall have the right to request a consultation with the department regarding citations and notification of penalties issued as a result of the investigation of the employee's death. For the purposes of this section, "next of kin" refers to the nearest proper relative as that term is defined by section 253B.03, subdivision 6 , paragraph (b), clause deleted text begin (3) deleted text end new text begin (10) new text end . Sec. 7. new text begin [246C.051] CLASSIFICATION ALIGNMENT FOR DIRECT CARE AND TREATMENT EMPLOYEES. new text end new text begin (a) Notwithstanding section 43A.08; Minnesota Rules, part 3900.1300; or any other law to the contrary, Direct Care and Treatment may, with approval from Minnesota Management and Budget, convert employees deemed unclassified pursuant to pilot authority of the Department of Human Services under Laws 1997, chapter 97, section 18, into the classified service. new text end new text begin (b) Employees converted to the classified service pursuant to this section are subject to the terms and conditions of employment applicable to positions in the classified service pursuant to statute, rule, bargaining unit or compensation plan, and agency policy, including but not limited to required probationary periods and mandatory training requirements. new text end new text begin (c) Employees converted to the classified service pursuant to this section must not receive a reduction in salary at the time of the conversion. new text end Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 253B.03, subdivision 6, is amended to read: Subd. 6. Consent for medical procedure. (a) A patient has the right to give prior consent to any medical deleted text begin or surgical deleted text end treatment new text begin , including but not limited to surgery new text end , other than treatment for chemical dependency or nonintrusive treatment for mental illness. new text begin For purposes of this subdivision only, "patient" includes a person committed under chapter 253D who is in a state-operated treatment program. new text end (b) The following procedures shall be used to obtain consent for any treatment necessary to preserve the life or health of any committed patient: (1) the written, informed consent of a competent adult patient for the treatment is sufficient; (2) if the patient is subject to guardianship which includes the provision of medical care, the written, informed consent of the guardian for the treatment is sufficient; (3) new text begin for a patient in a treatment facility, new text end if the head of the treatment facility deleted text begin or state-operated treatment program deleted text end determines that the patient is not competent to consent to the treatment and the patient has not been adjudicated incompetent, written, informed consent for the deleted text begin surgery or deleted text end medical treatment shall be obtained from the person appointed the health care power of attorney, the patient's agent under the health care directive, or the nearest proper relative. deleted text begin For this purpose, the following persons are proper relatives, in the order listed: the patient's spouse, parent, adult child, or adult sibling. deleted text end If the nearest proper deleted text begin relatives deleted text end new text begin relative new text end cannot be located, deleted text begin refuse deleted text end new text begin refuses new text end to consent to the procedure, or deleted text begin are deleted text end new text begin is new text end unable to consent, the head of the treatment facility deleted text begin or state-operated treatment program deleted text end or an interested person new text begin , as defined by section 524.5-102, subdivision 7, new text end may petition the committing court for approval for the treatment or may petition a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a guardian. The determination that the patient is not competent, and the reasons for the determination, shall be documented in the patient's clinical record; new text begin (4) for patients in a state-operated treatment program, if (i) the patient does not have a health care power of attorney or an agent under a health care directive or the patient's health care agent is not reasonably available to make the necessary health care decision for the patient, and (ii) the patient's treating physician determines that the patient lacks decision-making capacity to consent to the medical treatment, the state-operated treatment program must make a good faith attempt to locate the patient's nearest proper relative to obtain written informed consent for the medical treatment; new text end new text begin (5) if the state-operated treatment program is unable to reasonably locate a proper relative, the executive medical director has decision-making authority for the health care decision for the patient; new text end new text begin (6) any health care decision made by the executive medical director under clause (5) must be consistent with any documented patient health care directive and with reasonable medical practice and applicable law; new text end new text begin (7) if the state-operated treatment program consults with the patient's nearest proper relative under clause (4) and the patient's nearest proper relative and the patient's treating physician are not in agreement with respect to a medical treatment decision, the state-operated treatment program or an interested person may petition the committing court for approval of the treatment. The state-operated program may also petition a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a guardian at any time. If a court determines that a patient is not competent, the determination and the reasons for the determination must be documented in the patient's clinical record; new text end new text begin (8) before proceeding with treatment under clause (5), a state-operated treatment program must inform the patient of the determination, the proposed treatment, and the right to request review. Upon the request of the patient or an interested person a second physician not directly involved in the patient's current treatment must review the incapacity determination. The executive medical director must review the proposed treatment decision and the second physician's review and make an updated determination. A state-operated treatment program may proceed with treatment of the patient while a review under this clause is pending; new text end new text begin (9) if a patient or interested person is dissatisfied with the outcome of the review under clause (8), the patient or interested person may petition the committing court under section 253B.17 for review of the determination made under clause (8). Filing a petition under section 253B.17 does not stay treatment under this subdivision unless otherwise ordered by the court. In reviewing the executive medical director's decision under clause (8) and issuing a determination, the court must determine if the patient lacks capacity. If the patient lacks capacity, the court must determine if the patient clearly stated what the patient would choose to do in the situation when the patient had the capacity to make a reasoned decision. Evidence of the patient's wishes may include written instruments, including a durable power of attorney for health care under chapter 145C or a declaration under section 253B.03, subdivision 6d. If the court finds that the patient clearly stated what the patient would choose to do in the situation, the patient's wishes must be followed. If the court determines that the evidence of the patient's wishes regarding the situation is conflicting or lacking, the court must make a decision based on what a reasonable person would do, taking into consideration: new text end new text begin (i) the patient's family, community, moral, religious, and social values; new text end new text begin (ii) the medical risks, benefits, and alternatives to the proposed treatment; new text end new text begin (iii) past efficacy and any extenuating circumstances of past experience with the particular medical treatment; and new text end new text begin (iv) any other relevant factors; new text end new text begin (10) for purposes of this subdivision, the following persons are proper relatives, in the order listed: the patient's spouse, parent, adult child, or adult sibling; new text end deleted text begin (4) deleted text end new text begin (11) new text end consent to treatment of any minor patient shall be secured in accordance with sections 144.341 to 144.346 . A minor 16 years of age or older may consent to hospitalization, routine diagnostic evaluation, and emergency or short-term acute care; and deleted text begin (5) deleted text end new text begin (12) new text end in the case of an emergency when the persons ordinarily qualified to give consent cannot be located in sufficient time to address the emergency need, the head of the treatment facility or state-operated treatment program may give consent. (c) No person who consents to treatment pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision shall be civilly or criminally liable for the performance or the manner of performing the treatment. No person shall be liable for performing treatment without consent if written, informed consent was given pursuant to this subdivision. This provision shall not affect any other liability which may result from the manner in which the treatment is performed. new text begin (d) When a determination is made under paragraph (b), clauses (5) and (8), the state-operated treatment program must document the following information in the patient's clinical record: new text end new text begin (1) the determination of incapacity and the clinical basis for the determination; new text end new text begin (2) the specific treatment authorized; new text end new text begin (3) the person who provided consent or who made the determination allowing the treatment; new text end new text begin (4) the efforts made to locate and consult with a health care agent or nearest proper relative; and new text end new text begin (5) the patient's expressed preferences regarding the treatment, if known, and how the preferences were considered. new text end new text begin (e) The executive medical director must review a determination that a patient lacks capacity periodically as medically appropriate, but not less than every six months. The outcome of a review under this paragraph must be documented in the patient's clinical record. new text end Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 253B.18, subdivision 6, is amended to read: Subd. 6. Transfer. (a) A patient who is a person who has a mental illness and is dangerous to the public shall not be transferred out of a secure treatment facility unless it appears to the satisfaction of the executive board, after a hearing and favorable recommendation by a majority of the special review board, that the transfer is appropriate. Transfer may be to another state-operated treatment program. In those instances where a commitment also exists to the Department of Corrections, transfer may be to a facility designated by the commissioner of corrections. (b) The following factors must be considered in determining whether a transfer is appropriate: (1) the person's clinical progress and present treatment needs; (2) the need for security to accomplish continuing treatment; (3) the need for continued institutionalization; (4) which facility can best meet the person's needs; and (5) whether transfer can be accomplished with a reasonable degree of safety for the public. (c) If a committed person has been transferred out of a secure treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision, that committed person may voluntarily return to a secure treatment facility deleted text begin for a period of up to 60 days deleted text end with the consent of the head of the treatment facility deleted text begin . deleted text end new text begin for a period of up to: new text end new text begin (1) 90 days if due to a psychiatric medical condition; or new text end new text begin (2) six months if due to a nonpsychiatric medical condition. new text end (d) If the committed person is not returned to the original, nonsecure transfer facility within deleted text begin 60 deleted text end new text begin 90 new text end days of being readmitted to a secure treatment facility new text begin if due to a psychiatric medical condition or within six months of being readmitted to a secure treatment facility if due to a nonpsychiatric medical condition new text end , the transfer is revoked and the committed person must remain in a secure treatment facility. The committed person must immediately be notified in writing of the revocation. (e) Within 15 days of receiving notice of the revocation, the committed person may petition the special review board for a review of the revocation. The special review board shall review the circumstances of the revocation and shall recommend to the executive board whether or not the revocation should be upheld. The special review board may also recommend a new transfer at the time of the revocation hearing. (f) No action by the special review board is required if the transfer has not been revoked and the committed person is returned to the original, nonsecure transfer facility with no substantive change to the conditions of the transfer ordered under this subdivision. (g) The head of the treatment facility may revoke a transfer made under this subdivision and require a committed person to return to a secure treatment facility if: (1) remaining in a nonsecure setting does not provide a reasonable degree of safety to the committed person or others; or (2) the committed person has regressed clinically and the facility to which the committed person was transferred does not meet the committed person's needs. (h) Upon the revocation of the transfer, the committed person must be immediately returned to a secure treatment facility. A report documenting the reasons for revocation must be issued by the head of the treatment facility within seven days after the committed person is returned to the secure treatment facility. Advance notice to the committed person of the revocation is not required. (i) The committed person must be provided a copy of the revocation report and informed, orally and in writing, of the rights of a committed person under this section. The revocation report must be served upon the committed person, the committed person's counsel, and the designated agency. The report must outline the specific reasons for the revocation, including but not limited to the specific facts upon which the revocation is based. (j) If a committed person's transfer is revoked, the committed person may re-petition for transfer according to subdivision 5. (k) A committed person aggrieved by a transfer revocation decision may petition the special review board within seven business days after receipt of the revocation report for a review of the revocation. The matter must be scheduled within 30 days. The special review board shall review the circumstances leading to the revocation and, after considering the factors in paragraph (b), shall recommend to the executive board whether or not the revocation shall be upheld. The special review board may also recommend a new transfer out of a secure treatment facility at the time of the revocation hearing. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026. new text end Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 253B.18, subdivision 14, is amended to read: Subd. 14. Voluntary readmission. (a) With the consent of the head of the treatment facility or state-operated treatment program, a patient may voluntarily return from provisional discharge new text begin with the consent of the designated agency new text end for a period of up to new text begin : new text end new text begin (1) new text end 30 days deleted text begin , or deleted text end new text begin ; new text end new text begin (2) new text end deleted text begin up to deleted text end deleted text begin 60 deleted text end new text begin 90 new text end days deleted text begin with the consent of the designated agency. deleted text end new text begin if due to a psychiatric medical condition; or new text end new text begin (3) six months if due to a nonpsychiatric medical condition. new text end new text begin (b) new text end If the patient is not returned to provisional discharge status within deleted text begin 60 deleted text end new text begin 90 new text end days new text begin of being readmitted if due to a psychiatric medical condition or within six months of being readmitted if due to a nonpsychiatric medical condition new text end , the provisional discharge is revoked. Within 15 days of receiving notice of the change in status, the patient may request a review of the matter before the special review board. The special review board may recommend a return to a provisional discharge status. deleted text begin (b) deleted text end new text begin (c) new text end The treatment facility or state-operated treatment program is not required to petition for a further review by the special review board unless the patient's return to the community results in substantive change to the existing provisional discharge plan. All the terms and conditions of the provisional discharge order shall remain unchanged if the patient is released again. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026. new text end