2025 Public Safety Act.

GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF NORTH CAROLINA
SESSION 2025

SESSION LAW 2025-70
SENATE BILL 429

*S429-v-6*
AN ACT TO MAKE VARIO US CHANGES RELATED T O THE CRIMINAL LAWS OF
NORTH CAROLINA.

The General Assembly of North Carolina enacts:

CREATE NEW CRIMINAL OFFENSE FOR EXPOSING A CHILD TO A
CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE
SECTION 1.(a) Article 39 of Chapter 14 of the General Statutes is amended by
adding a new section to read:
"§ 14-318.7. Exposing a child to a controlled substance.
(a) Definitions. – The following definitions apply in this section:
(1) Child. – Any person who is less than 16 years of age.
(2) Controlled substance. – A controlled substance , controlled substance
analogue, drug, marijuana, narcotic drug, opiate, opioid, opium poppy, poppy
straw, or targeted controlled substance, all as defined in G.S. 90-87.
(3) Ingest. – Any means used to take into the body, to eat or drink, or otherwise
consume or absorb into the body in any way.
(b) A person who knowingly, intentionally, or with reckless disregard for human life
causes or permits a child to be exposed to a controlled substance is guilty of a Class H felony.
(c) A person who knowingly, intentionally, or with reckless disregard for human life
causes or permits a child to be exposed to a controlled substance and, as a result, the child ingests
the controlled substance is guilty of a Class E felony.
(d) A person who knowingly, intentionally, or with reckless disregard for human life
causes or permits a child to be exposed to a controlled substance and, as a result, the child ingests
the controlled substance, resulting in serious physical injury as defined in G.S. 14-318.4, is guilty
of a Class D felony.
(e) A person who knowingly, intentionally, or with reckless disregard for human life
causes or permits a child to be exposed to a controlled substance and, as a result, the child ingests
the controlled substance, resulting in serious bodily injury as defined in G.S. 14-318.4, is guilty
of a Class C felony.
(f) A person who knowingly, intentionally, or with reckless disregard for human life
causes or permits a child to be exposed to a controlled substance and, as a result, the child ingests
the controlled substance, and the ingestion is the proximate cause of death , is guilty of a Class
B1 felony.
(g) The punishments set forth in subsections (b) through (f) of this section apply unless
the conduct is covered under some other provision of law providing greater punishment.
(h) This section does not apply to a person that intentionally gives a child a controlled
substance that has been prescribed for the child by a licensed medical professional when given
to the child in the prescribed amount and manner."
SECTION 1.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

Page 2 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
REVISE LAWS PERTAINING TO THE DISCLOSURE AND RELEASE OF AUTOPSY
INFORMATION COMPILED OR PREPARED BY THE OFFICE OF THE CHIEF
MEDICAL EXAMINER
SECTION 2.(a) G.S. 130A-385 reads as rewritten:
"§ 130A-385. Duties of medical examiner upon receipt of notice; reports; copies.
…
(d) Upon request by the district attorney, the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, the
local medical examiner, and the autopsy center, as applicable, shall provide a complete copy of
the medical examiner investigation file to the app ropriate district attorney. For purposes of this
subsection, the "medical examiner investigation file" means the finalized toxicology report, the
finalized autopsy report, any autopsy examination notes, any death scene notes, the finalized
report of investigation of a medical examiner, the case encounter form, any case comments, any
case notes, any autopsy photographs, any scene photographs, and any video or audio recordings
of the autopsy examination in the custody and control of the North Carolina Office of the Chief
Medical Examiner, a pathologist designated by the Chief Medical Examiner, a county medical
examiner appointed under G.S. 130A-382, or an investigating medical examiner examiner, or an
autopsy center in connection with a death under criminal investigation by a public law
enforcement agency. Each records custodian shall be is responsible for providing the portions of
the medical examiner investigation file within its custody and control. This is a conti nuing
disclosure obligation, and each records custodian shall provide to the district attorney any records
or other materials responsive to the district attorney's request that are discovered or added to the
medical examiner investigation file after the re quest was made shall also be provided to the
district attorney. has been made. The district attorney or investigating law enforcement agency
shall inform the Chief Medical Examiner, the county medical examiner, or the autopsy center,
Examiner, the county medical examiner appointed under G.S. 130A-382, the investigating
medical examiner, and the autopsy center, as applicable, if when the death is no longer under
criminal investigation and the continuing disclosure obligation is has terminated.
(d1) Upon notice from the investigating public law enforcement agency or prosecuting
district attorney that a death is under criminal investigation or the subject of a criminal
prosecution, any records, worksheets, reports, photographs, tests, or analyses compiled, prepared,
or conducted by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, a pathologist designated by the Chief
Medical Examiner, a county medical examiner appointed under G.S. 130A-382, an investigating
medical examiner, or an autopsy center , including any auto psy photographs or video or audio
recordings, related to that death shall be treated as records of criminal investigations pursuant to
G.S. 132-1.4. Autopsy photographs or video or audio records subject to the provisions of this
subsection may only be disclosed or released pursuant to G.S. 130A-389.1. These records may
only be disclosed or released as follows and recipients of records pursuant to the following
subdivisions may not disclose the identified records to the public unless otherwise authorized by
law:
(1) The custodian of the finalized toxicology report, finalized autopsy report, or
finalized report of investigation of a medical examiner may release a copy at
a time and location determined by the custodia l agency (i) to a personal
representative of the decedent's estate to enable the personal representative to
fulfill his or her duties under the law, (ii) to a beneficiary of a benefit or claim
associated with the decedent for purposes of receiving the benefit or resolving
the claim, or (iii) to the decedent's spouse, child or stepchild, parent or
stepparent, sibling, or legal guardian.
(2) The Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, a pathologist designated by the
Chief Medical Examiner, a county medical examiner appointed under
G.S. 130A-382, an investigating medical examiner, or an autopsy center is not
prohibited from disclosing or releasing information or reports when necessary

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 3
to conduct a thorough and complete death investigation, to consult with
outside physicians and other professionals during the death investigation, and
to conduct necessary toxicological screenings.
(3) When disclosing information to the investigating public law enforcement
agency or prosecuting district attorney.
(4) When disclosing or releasing information or reports is necessary (i) to address
public health or safety concerns , (ii) for public health purposes, including
public health surveillance, investigations, interventions, and evaluations, (iii)
to facilitate research , (iv) to facilitate education, (v) to release dec edent
remains to transporters, funeral homes, family members, or others for final
disposition, (vi) to comply with reporting requirements under State or federal
law or in connection with State or federal grants, or (vii) to comply with any
other duties imposed by law.
(d2) Records and materials subject to the provisions of subsection (d1) of this section shall
continue to be records of criminal investigations pursuant to G.S. 132-1.4 until the Office of the
Chief Medical Examiner, county medical examiner, or autopsy center that is custodian o f the
records (i) receives notification from the investigating public law enforcement agency or the
prosecuting district attorney of the conclusion of the criminal investigation or prosecution or the
decision to terminate the criminal investigation of the death or (ii) receives notification from the
prosecuting district attorney that some portion of the records or materials have been introduced
as evidence in a public trial. The notification required by this se ction shall be made on a form
created by the Administrative Office of the Courts and completed by either the investigating
public law enforcement agency or the prosecuting district attorney. The Chief Medical Examiner,
county medical examiner, or autopsy center may rely on a completed notification form conveyed
by a third party . The Office of the Chief Medical Examiner and its staff, the county medical
examiner, and the autopsy center and its staff shall have no criminal or civil liability for relying
on a notice provided pursuant to this subsection.
(d3) Except as provided in subsection (d4) of this section, any records, worksheets, reports,
photographs, tests, or analyses compiled, prepared, or conducted by the Office of the Chief
Medical Examiner, a patho logist designated by the Chief Medical Examiner, a county medical
examiner appointed under G.S. 130A-382, an investigating medical examiner, or an autopsy
center in connection with the death of a child who was under 18 years of age at the time of death,
including any autopsy photographs or video or audio recordings, are confidential and may be
disclosed or released only with the prior written consent of the deceased child's parent or guardian
or as follows:
(1) The custodian of the finalized autopsy report, finalized toxicology report, or
finalized report of investigation of a medical examiner may release a copy at
a time and location determined by the custodial agency to (i) a personal
representative of the decedent's estate to enable the personal representative to
fulfill his or her duties under the law or (ii) a beneficiary of a benefit or claim
associated with the decedent for purposes of receiving the benefit or resolving
the claim.
(2) The Office of the Chief Med ical Examiner, a pathologist designated by the
Chief Medical Examiner, a county medical examiner appointed under
G.S. 130A-382, an investigating medical examiner, or an autopsy center is not
prohibited from disclosing or releasing information or reports when necessary
to conduct a thorough and complete death investigation , to consult with
outside physicians and other professionals during the death investigation, and
to conduct necessary toxicology screenings.
(3) When disclosing or releasing information or reports is necessary (i) to address
public health or safety concerns , (ii) for public health purposes, including

Page 4 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
public health surveillance, investigations, interventions, and evaluations, (iii)
to facilitate research , (iv) to facilitate education, (v) to release decedent
remains to transporters, funeral homes, family members , or others for final
disposition, (vi) to comply with reporting requirements under State or federal
law or in connection with State or federal grants , or (vii) to comply with any
other duties imposed by law.
(4) The custodian of the finalized autopsy report , finalized toxicology report,
finalized report of investigation of a medical examiner, and any related
documents shall, upon request, release copies of the r eport and those
documents to the surviving spouse of the deceased, the deceased's parents, any
adult children of the deceased, any legal guardian or custodian of the
deceased, any legal guardian or custodian of a child of the deceased, or any
person holding power of attorney or healthcare attorney for the deceased.
(5) The legal representatives of any person authorized to receive records under
this section.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, a ny materials that are subject to the
provisions of subsection (d1) of this section may only be disclosed pursuant to that subsection
while the death is under criminal investigation by a public law enforcement agency or during the
pendency of criminal charges associated with a death.
(d4) When any records or materials are subject to the provisions of both subsection s (d1)
and (d3) of this section , the records and materials shall not be disclosed or released except as
authorized by subsection (d1) of this section until the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner,
county medical examiner, or autopsy center that is custodian of the records or materials has
received notification of the conclusion of the criminal investigation or prosecution, the decision
to terminate the criminal investigation of the death , or that some portion of the records or
materials have been introduced as evidence in a public tr ial pursuant to subsection (d2) of this
section.
(d5) Any person who willfully and knowingly discloses or releases records or materials in
violation of subsection (d1) or (d3) of this section, or who willfully and knowingly possesses or
disseminates records or materials that were disclosed or released in violation of subsection (d1)
or (d3) of this section, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor; provided, however, that more than one
occurrence of disclosure, release, possession, or dissemination of the same item by the same
person is not a separate offense. No person shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor under this
subsection for disclosing, releasing, possessing, or disseminating records or materials if, at the
time of the disclosure, release, possession, or dissemination, notice that the record or material is
record of a c riminal investigation had not been provided as required by subsection (d1) of this
section. A person who discloses or releases information pursuant to subsection (d3) of this section
in reliance on the written consent of an individual who represents to be the child's parent or
guardian and who acts in good faith without actual knowledge that the representation is false will
not be subject to civil or criminal liability. As used in this subsection, the term "disclose" means
the act of making records or materials available for viewing or listening by a person or entity
upon request, at a time and location chosen by the custodial agency, and the term "release" means
the act of the custodial agency in providing a copy of records or materials.
(d6) Any other person or entity seeking disclosure or release of records or materials
covered under subsection (d1) or (d3) of this section may commence a special proceeding in the
superior court of the county where the death that is the subject of the records or materials occurred
to obtain a court order for disclosure or release of the records or materials. The court may conduct
an in-camera review of the records or materials. Upon a showing of good cause, a superior court
judge may issue an order authorizing the disclosure or release of the records or materials and
may prescribe any restrictions or stipulations that the superior court judge deems appropriate.
The petitioner shall provide reasonable notice of the commencement of the special proceeding

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 5
and reasonable notice of the opportunity to be present and heard at any hearing on the matter in
accordance with Rule 5 of the Rules of Civil Procedure. The notice shall be provided, in writing,
to all of the following:
(1) The Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.
(2) The district attorney of the county in which the death occurred.
(3) The personal representative of the estate of the deceased, if any.
(4) If the record or material is subject to the provisions of subsection (d1) of this
section, the surviving spouse of the deceased. If there is no surviving spouse,
then the notice shall be provided to the deceased's parents, and if the deceased
has no living parent, then to the adult child of the deceased or to the guardian
or custodian of a minor child of the deceased.
(5) If the record or material is subject to the provisions of subsection (d2) of this
section, to the deceased child's parents or guardian.
In determining good cause, the judge shall consider whether the disclosure or release is
necessary for the public evaluation of governmental performance, the seriousness of the intrusion
into the family's right to privacy, whether the requested disclosure or release is the least intrusive
means available, the need to withhold the records to facilitate the investigation or prosecution of
criminal offenses , the rights of the defendant in any ongoing criminal investigation or
prosecution, the public interest in having access to the records or materials, and the availability
of similar information in other public records, regardless of form. A party aggrieved by an order
of the superior court authorized by this subsection may appeal in accordance with Article 27 of
Chapter 1 of the General Statutes.
(d7) Any person or entity seeking disclosure or release of records or materials covered
under subsection (d1) or (d3) of this section who is alleging that the criminal investigation or
prosecution has concluded or been terminated, or that portions of the records or material have
been introduced as evidence in a public trial, but that the investigating public law enforcement
agency or prosecuting district attorney will not comply with the notification required pursuant to
subsection (d2) of this section may commence a special proceeding in the superior court of the
county where the death that is the subject of the records or materials occurred for an order
compelling disclosure or release of the records or materials.
In any action brought pursuant to this section in which a party successfully compels the
disclosure of records or materials, the court shall allow a party seeking disclosure of records or
materials who substantially prevails to recover its reasonable attorneys' fees if attributed to those
records or materials. The court may not assess attorneys' fees against the governmental body or
governmental unit if the court finds that the governmental body or governmental unit acted in
reasonable reliance on any of the following:
(1) A judgment or an order of a court applicable to the governmental unit or
governmental body.
(2) The published opinion of an appellate court, an order of the North Carolina
Business Court, or a final order of the Trial Division o f the General Court of
Justice.
(3) A written opinion, decision, or letter of the Attorney General.
Any attorneys ' fees assessed against a public agency under this section shall be charged
against the operating expenses of the agency; provided, however, th at the court may order that
all or any portion of any attorneys ' fees so assessed be paid personally by any public employee
or public official found by the court to have knowingly or intentionally committed, caused,
permitted, suborned, or participated in a violation of this Article. No order against any public
employee or public official shall issue in any case where the public employee or public official
seeks the advice of an attorney and such advice is followed.

Page 6 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
If the court determines that an action brought pursuant to this section was filed in bad faith
or was frivolous, the court shall assess a reasonable attorneys ' fee against the person or persons
instituting the action and award it to the public agency as part of the costs.
(e) In cases where death occurred due to an injury received in the course of the decedent's
employment, the Chief Medical Examiner shall forward to the Commissioner of Labor a copy of
the medical examiner's report of the investigation, including the location of the fatal injury and
the name and address of the decedent's employer at the time of the fatal injury. The Chief Medical
Examiner shall forward this report within 30 days of receipt of the information from the medical
examiner. Upon written request by the Commissioner of L abor, the Chief Medical Examiner
shall provide the finalized autopsy report within five months of the date of the request.
(f) If a death occurred in a facility licensed subject to Article 2 or Article 3 of Chapter
122C of the General Statutes, or Articles 1 or 1A of Chapter 131D of the General Statutes, and
the deceased was a client or resident of the facility or a recipient of f acility services at the time
of death, then the Chief Medical Examiner shall forward a copy of the medical examiner's report
to the Secretary of Health and Human Services within 30 days of after receipt of the report from
the medical examiner."
SECTION 2.(b) G.S. 130A-389(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) The Chief Medical Examiner or a competent pathologist designated by the Chief
Medical Examiner shall perform an autopsy or other study in each of the following cases:
(1) If, in the opinion of the medical examiner investigating the case or of the Chief
Medical Examiner, it is advisable and in the public interest that an autopsy or
other study be made.
(2) If an autopsy or other study is requested by the district attorney of the county
or by any superior court judge.
(3) Notwithstanding subdivision (2) of this subsection, in any case in which the
district attorney of the county asserts to the Chief Medical Examiner or the
medical examiner of the county in which the body was located that there is
probable cause to believe that a violation of G.S. 14-18.4 has occurred, a
complete autopsy shall be performed. The district attorney has at least 72
weekday hours after pronouncement of death by a person authorized under
this Part to express the opinion that death has occu rred to make the assertion
required by this subdivision, provided that the district attorney or the
investigating law enforcement agency provides notification within the first 24
hours after the pronouncement that such an assertion might be made. The
district attorney may, but is not required to, assert to the Chief Medical
Examiner the facts supporting probable cause to believe that a violation of
G.S. 14-18.4 has occurred.
A complete autopsy report of findings and interpretations, prepared on forms design ated for
the purpose, shall be submitted promptly to the Chief Medical Examiner. Subject to the
limitations of G.S. 130A-389.1 relating to photographs and video or audio recordings of an
autopsy, a copy of the report shall be furnished to any person upon request.request unless the
report is protected from disclosure or release under subsection (d1) or (d3) of G.S. 130A-385."
SECTION 2.(c) G.S. 130A-389.1 reads as rewritten:
"§ 130A-389.1. Photographs and video or audio recordings made pursuant to autopsy.
(a) Except as otherwise provided by law, law and excluding (i) any records or materials
treated as records of criminal investigation s under G.S. 130A-385(d1) and (ii) any confidential
materials in connection with the death of a child who was under 18 years of age at the time of
death that a parent or guardian elects to protect from disclosure or release u nder
G.S. 130A-385(d3), any person may inspect and examine original photographs or video or audio
recordings of an autopsy performed pursuant to G.S. 130A-389(a) at reasonable times and under
reasonable supervision of the custodian of the photographs or recordings. Except as otherwise

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 7
provided by this sect ion, no custodian of the original recorded images shall furnish copies of
photographs or video or audio recordings of an autopsy to the public. For purposes of this section,
the Chief Medical Examiner shall be the custodian of all autopsy photographs or vi deo or audio
recordings unless the photographs or recordings were taken by or at the direction of an
investigating medical examiner and the investigating medical examiner retains the original
photographs or recordings. If Except in cases in which the records or materials are protected from
disclosure or release under subsection (d1) or (d3) of G.S. 130A-385, if the investigating medical
examiner has retained the original photographs or recordings, then the investigating medical
examiner is the custodian of the photographs or video or audio recordings and must shall allow
the public to inspect and examine them in accordance with this subsection.
…
(d) A person who is denied access to copies of photographs or video or audio recordings,
or who is restricted in the use the person may make of the photographs or video or audio
recordings under this section, may commence a special proceeding in accordance with Article 33
of Chapter 1 of the General Statutes. Upon a showing of good cause, the clerk may issue an order
authorizing the person to copy or disclose a photograph or video or audio recording of an autopsy
and may prescribe any restrictions or stipulations that the clerk deems appropriate. In determining
good cause, the clerk shall consider whether the disclosure is necessary for the public evaluation
of governmental performance; the seriousness of the intrusion into the family's right to privacy
and whether the disclosure is the least intrusive means available; and the availability of similar
information in oth er public records, regardless of form. In all cases, the viewing, copying,
listening to, or other handling of a photograph or video or audio recording of an autopsy shall be
under the direct supervision of the Chief Medical Examiner or the Chief Medical Ex aminer's
designee. A party aggrieved by an order of the clerk may appeal to the appropriate court in
accordance with Article 27A of Chapter 1 of the General Statutes. This subsection does not apply
to autopsy photographs or video or audio recordings that a re (i) treated as records of criminal
investigations under G.S. 130A-385(d1), which may be disclosed or released to other persons or
entities only in accordance with G.S. 130A-385(d2) or (d6), or (ii) of a deceased child that was
under 18 years of age at t he time of death that a parent or guardian elects to protect from
disclosure or release under G.S. 130A-385(d3), which may be disclosed or released to other
persons or entities only with the prior consent of the deceased child 's parent or guardian , or in
accordance with G.S. 130A-385(d6).
…."
SECTION 2.(d) G.S. 132-1.8 reads as rewritten:
"§ 132-1.8. Confidentiality of photographs and video or audio recordings made pursuant
to autopsy.
Except as otherwise provided in G.S. 130A-389.1, a photograph or video or audio recording
of an official autopsy is not a public record as defined by G.S. 132-1. However, the text of an
official autopsy report, including any findings and interpretations prepared in accordance with
G.S. 130A-389(a), is a public record and fully accessible by the public. public, unless the report
is protected from disclosure or release under subsection (d1) or (d3) of G.S. 130A-385. For
purposes of this section, an official autopsy is an autopsy performed pursuant to
G.S. 130A-389(a)."
SECTION 2.(e) This section becomes effective October 1, 2025.

INCREASE THE PUNISHMENT FOR COMMITTING THE OFFENSE OF
SOLICITATION OF MINORS BY COMPUTER
SECTION 3.(a) G.S. 14-202.3(c) reads as rewritten:
"(c) Punishment. – A violation of this section is punishable as follows:
(1) A Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, a first violation of this
section is a Class H felony except as provided by subdivision (2) of this

Page 8 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
subsection.Class G felony. A second or subsequent violation of this section,
or a first violation of this section committed when the defendant had a prior
conviction in any federal or state court in the United States that is substantially
similar to the offense set forth in this section, is a Class E felony.
(2) If either the defenda nt, or any other person for whom the defendant was
arranging the meeting in violation of this section, actually appears at the
meeting location, then the violation is a Class G felony.Class D felony."
SECTION 3.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

REVISE THE LAW GOVERNING THE GRANTING OF IMMUNITY TO WITNESSES
SECTION 4.(a) G.S. 15A-1052(b) reads as rewritten:
"(b) The application may be made whenever, in the judgment of the district attorney, the
witness has asserted or is likely to assert his the witness's privilege against self-incrimination and
his the witness's testimony or other information is or will be necessary to the public interest.
Before making application to the judge, the district attorney must inform the Attorney General,
or a deputy or assistant attorney general designated by him, of the circumstances and his intent
to make an application."
SECTION 4.(b) G.S. 15A-1053(b) reads as rewritten:
"(b) The application may be made when the district attorney has been informed by the
foreman of the grand jury that the witness has asserted his the witness 's privilege against
self-incrimination and the district attorney determines that the testimony or other information is
necessary to the public interest. Before making application to the judge, the district attorney must
inform the Attorney General, or a deputy or assistant attorney general designated b y him, of the
circumstances and his intent to make an application."
SECTION 4.(c) This section is effective when it becomes law and applies to
applications made on or after that date.

REQUIRE CERTAIN PETITIONS PERTAINING TO SEX OFFENDER
REGISTRATION BE PLACED ON THE CRIMINAL DOCKET
SECTION 5.(a) G.S. 14-208.12A reads as rewritten:
"§ 14-208.12A. Request for termination of registration requirement.
(a) Ten years from the date of initial county registration, a person required to register
under this Part may petition the superior court to terminate the 30 -year registration requirement
if the person has not been convicted of a subsequent offense requiring registration under this
Article.
If the reportable conviction is for an offense that occurred in North Carolina, the petition shall
be filed in the district where the person was convicted of the offense.
If the reportable conviction is for an offense that occurred in another state, the petition shall
be filed in the district where the person resides. A perso n who petitions to terminate the
registration requirement for a reportable conviction that is an out -of-state offense shall also do
the following: (i) provide written notice to the sheriff of the county where the person was
convicted that the person is petitioning the court to terminate the registration requirement and (ii)
include with the petition at the time of its filing, an affidavit, signed by the petitioner, that verifies
that the petitioner has notified the sheriff of the county where the person was convicted of the
petition and that provides the mailing address and contact information for that sheriff.
Regardless of where the offense occurred, if the defendant was convicted of a reportable
offense in any federal court, the conviction will be treated as an out -of-state offense for the
purposes of this section.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 9
The clerk of the court, upon receipt of the petition, shall collect the applicable filing fee and
place the petition on the criminal docket to be calendared by the district attorney pursuant to
G.S. 7A-49.4.
(a1) The court may grant the relief if:
(1) The petitioner demonstrates to the court that he or she has not been arrested
for any crime that would require registration under this Article since
completing the sentence,
(2) The requested relief complies with the provisions of the federal Jacob
Wetterling Act, as amended, and any other federal standards applicable to the
termination of a registration requirement or required to be met as a condition
for the receipt of federal funds by the State, and
(3) The court is otherwise satisfied that the petitioner is not a current or potential
threat to public safety.
(a2) The district attorney in the district in which the petition is filed shall be given notice
of the petition at least three weeks before t he hearing on the matter. The hearing shall be
calendared during a criminal session of superior court. The petitioner may present evidence in
support of the petition and the district attorney may present evidence in opposition to the
requested relief or may otherwise demonstrate the reasons why the petition should be denied.
…
(d) Fee. – A person who files a petition to terminate the 30 -year requirement under this
section shall pay the civil filing fee at the time the petition is filed. This subsection does not apply
to petitions filed by an indigent."
SECTION 5.(b) G.S. 14-208.12B reads as rewritten:
"§ 14-208.12B. Registration requirement review.
…
(b) The petition shall be filed in the county in which the person resides using a form
created by the Administrative Office of the Courts. The petition must be filed with the clerk of
court within 30 days of the person's receipt of the notification of the requirement to register from
the sheriff. The person filing the petition must serve a copy of the petition on the office of the
district attorney and the sheriff in the county where the person resides within three days of filing
the petition with the clerk of court. The petition shall be calendared during a criminal session at
the next regularly scheduled term of superior court. At the first setting, the petitioner must be
advised of the right to have counsel present at the hearing and to the appointment of cou nsel if
the petitioner cannot afford to retain counsel. Appointment of counsel shall be in accordance with
rules adopted by the Office of Indigent Defense Services.
…
(j) Fee. – A person who files a petition for a judicial determination of the requirement to
register under this section shall pay the civil filing fee at the time the petition is filed. This
subsection does not apply to petitions filed by an indigent."
SECTION 5.(c) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
petitions filed on or after that date.

ALLOW PERSONS OUTSIDE OF THIS STATE TO FILE FOR A DOMESTIC
VIOLENCE PROTECTION ORDER
SECTION 6.(a) G.S. 50B-2(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) Any person residing in this State State, or seeking relief for acts that have occurred in
this State, may seek relief under this Chapter by filing a civil action or by filing a motion in any
existing action filed under Chapter 50 of the General Statutes alleging acts of domestic violence
against himself or herself or a minor child who resides w ith or is in the custody of such person.
Any aggrieved party entitled to relief under this Chapter may file a civil action and proceed pro
se, without the assistance of legal counsel. The district court division of the General Court of

Page 10 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
Justice shall have original jurisdiction over actions instituted under this Chapter. Any action for
a domestic violence protective order requires that a summons be issued and served. The summons
issued pursuant to this Chapter shall require the defendant to answer within 10 d ays of the date
of service. Attachments to the summons shall include the complaint, notice of hearing, any
temporary or ex parte order that has been issued, and other papers through the appropriate law
enforcement agency where the defendant is to be served. In compliance with the federal Violence
Against Women Act, no court costs or attorneys' fees shall be assessed for the filing, issuance,
registration, or service of a protective order or petition for a protective order or witness subpoena,
except as provided in G.S. 1A-1, Rule 11."
SECTION 6.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
civil actions or motions filed on or after that date.

REVISE REQUIREMENT UNDER THE CRIME VICTIMS COMPENSATION ACT
THAT CRIMINALLY INJURIOUS CONDUCT BE REPORTED TO LAW
ENFORCEMENT WITHIN 72 HOURS OF ITS OCCURRENCE
SECTION 7.(a) G.S. 15B-11(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) An award of compensation shall be denied if:if any of the following apply:
(1) The claimant fails to file an application for an award w ithin two years after
the date of the criminally injurious conduct that caused the injury or death for
which the claimant seeks the award;award.
(2) The economic loss is incurred after one year from the date of the criminally
injurious conduct that caused the injury or death for which the victim seeks
the award, except in the case where the victim for whom compensation is
sought was 10 years old or younger at the time the injury occurred. In that
case an award of compensation will be denied if the economic loss is incurred
after two years from the date of the criminally injurious conduct that caused
the injury or death for which the victim seeks the award;award.
(3) The criminally injurious conduct was not reported to a law enforcement
officer or agency within 72 hours six months of its occurrence, and there was
no good cause for the delay;delay.
(4) The award would benefit the offender or the offender's accomplice, u nless a
determination is made that the interests of justice require that an award be
approved in a particular case;case.
(5) The criminally injurious conduct occurred while the victim was confined in
any State, county, or city prison, correctional, youth s ervices, or juvenile
facility, or local confinement facility, or half -way house, group home, or
similar facility; orfacility.
(6) The victim was participating in a felony at or about the time that the victim's
injury occurred."
SECTION 7.(b) This section is effective when it becomes law and applies to
applications filed on or after that date.

REVISE CRIMINAL OFFENSE OF SECRETLY PEEPING INTO ROOM OCCUPIED
BY ANOTHER PERSON
SECTION 8.(a) G.S. 14-202 reads as rewritten:
"§ 14-202. Secretly peeping into room occupied by another person.
(a) Any person who shall peep secretly into any room occupied by another person shall
be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
(a1) Unless covered by another provision of law providing greater punishment, any person
who secretly or surreptitiously peeps underneath or through the clothing being worn by another
person, through the use of a mirror or other device, for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 11
undergarments worn by, that other person without their consent shall be g uilty of a Class 1
misdemeanor.
(b) For purposes of this section:The following definitions apply in this section:
(1) The term "photographic image" means any Photographic image. – Any
photograph or photographic reproduction, still or moving, or any videotape,
motion picture, or live television transmission, or any digital image of any
individual.
(2) The term "room" shall include, Private area of an individual. – The naked or
undergarment clad genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or female breast of that
individual.
(3) Room. – Includes, but is not limited to, a bedroom, a rest room, a bathroom, a
shower, and a dressing room.room, a dressing stall, a cubicle, or other similar
area designed to provide privacy.
(4) Under circumstances in which that individual has a reasonable expectation of
privacy. – Means either of the following:
a. Circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that he or
she could disrobe in privacy, without being concerned that a
photographic image of a private area of the individual was being
created.
b. Circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that a
private area of the individual would not be visible to the public,
regardless of whether that person is in a public or private place.
(c) Unless covered by another provision of law providing greater punishment, any person
who, while in possession of any device which may be used to create a photographic image, image
and with the intent to create a photographic image , shall secretly peep into any room shall be
guilty of a Class A1 misdemeanor.
(d) Unless covered by another provision of law providing greater punishment, any person
who, while secretly peeping into any room, uses any device to create a photographic image of
another person in that room for the purpose of arousing or gratifying the sexual desire of any
person shall be guilty of a Class I felony.
(e) Any person who secretly or surreptitiously uses any device to create a photographic
image of another person underneath or through the clothing being worn by that other person for
the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person without
their consent shall be guilty of a Class I felony.
(e1) Unless covered under some other provision of law providing greater punishment, any
person who, with the intent to create a photographic image of a private area of an individual
without the individual's consent, knowingly does so under circumstances in which the individual
has a reasonable expectation of privacy shall be guilty of a Class I felony.
(f) Any person who, for the purpose of arousing or gratifying the sexual desire of any
person, secretly or surreptitiously uses or installs in a room any device that can be used to create
a photographic image with the intent to capture the image of another without their consent shall
be guilty of a Class I felony.
(g) Any person who knowingly possesses a photographic image that the person knows,
or has reason to believe, was obtained in violation of this section shall be guilty of a Class I
felony.
(h) Any person who disseminates or allows to be disseminated images that the person
knows, or should have known, were obtained as a result of the violation of this section shall be
guilty of a Class H felony if the dissemination is wit hout the consent of the person in the
photographic image.
(i) A second or subsequent felony conviction under this section shall be punished as
though convicted of an offense one class higher. A second or subsequent conviction for a Class

Page 12 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
1 misdemeanor shall be punished as a Class A1 misdemeanor. A second or subsequent conviction
for a Class A1 misdemeanor shall be punished as a Class I felony.
(j) If the defendant is placed on probation as a result of violation of this section:
(1) For a first conviction under this section, the judge may impose a requirement
that the defendant obtain a psychological evaluation and comply with any
treatment recommended as a result of that evaluation.
(2) For a second or subsequent conviction under this section, the judge shal l
impose a requirement that the defendant obtain a psychological evaluation and
comply with any treatment recommended as a result of that evaluation.
(k) Any person whose image is captured or disseminated in violation of this section has
a civil cause of a ction against any person who captured or disseminated the image or procured
any other person to capture or disseminate the image and is entitled to recover from those persons
actual damages, punitive damages, reasonable attorneys' fees and other litigation costs reasonably
incurred.
(l) When a person violates subsection (d), (e), (e1), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, or is
convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection (a), (a1), or (c) of this section, the
sentencing court shall consider whe ther the person is a danger to the community and whether
requiring the person to register as a sex offender pursuant to Article 27A of this Chapter would
further the purposes of that Article as stated in G.S. 14-208.5. If the sentencing court rules that
the person is a danger to the community and that the person shall register, then an order shall be
entered requiring the person to register.
(m) The provisions of subsections (a), (a1), (c), (e), (e1), (g), (h), and (k) of this section
do not apply to:to either of the following:
(1) Law enforcement officers while discharging or attempting to discharge their
official duties; orduties.
(2) Personnel of the Division of Prisons of the Department of Adult Correction or
of a local confinement facility for security purposes or during investigation of
alleged misconduct by a person in the custody of the Division or the local
confinement facility.
(n) This section does not affect the legal activities of those who are licensed pursuant to
Chapter 74C, Private Protect ive Services, or Chapter 74D, Alarm Systems, of the General
Statutes, who are legally engaged in the discharge of their official duties within their respective
professions, and who are not engaging in activities for an improper purpose as described in this
section."
SECTION 8.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

REVISE LAW PROHIBITING SEXUAL ACTIVITY BY A SUBSTITUTE PARENT OR
CUSTODIAN TO INCLUDE RELIGIOUS ORGANIZATIONS OR INSTITUTIONS
SECTION 9.(a) G.S. 14-27.31 reads as rewritten:
"§ 14-27.31. Sexual activity by a substitute parent or custodian.
(a) If a defendant who has assumed the position of a parent in the home of a minor victim
engages in vaginal intercourse or a sexual act with a victim who is a minor residing in the home,
the defendant is guilty of a Class E felony.
(b) If a person having custody of a victim of any age or a person who is an agent or
employee of any person, or institution, including a religious organization or institution, whether
such institution is private, charitable, or governmental, having custody of a victim of any age
engages in vaginal intercourse or a sexual act with such victim, the defendant is guilty of a Class
E felony.
(c) Consent is not a defense to a charge under this section.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 13
(d) As used in this section, "custody" means the care, control, or supervision of a minor
by any adult who, by virtue of their position, role, employment, volunteer status, or relationship
to a minor, exercises supervisory authority or control over a minor, or is responsible for the
minor's welfare, safety, or supervision, regardless of whether such responsibility arises from
express appointment, organizational duty, professional obligation, or circumstantial necessity."
SECTION 9.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

CLARIFY THAT ALL FELONY SCHOOL NOTIFICATIONS ARE LIMITED TO
CLASS A THROUGH CLASS E FELONIES
SECTION 10. G.S. 7B-3101(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) Notwithstanding G.S. 7B-3000, the juvenile court counselor shall deliver verbal and
written notification of any of the following actions to the principal of the school that the juvenile
attends:
(1) A petition is filed under G.S. 7B-1802 that alleges delinquency for an offense
that would constitute a Class A, B1, B2, C, D, or E felony if committed by an
adult. The principal of the school shall make an individualized decision related
to the status of the student during the pendency of the matter and not have an
automatic suspension policy.
(2) The court transfers jurisdiction over a juvenile to the superior court under
G.S. 7B-2200.5 or G.S. 7B-2200.G.S. 7B-2200 for an offense that would
constitute a Class A, B1, B2, C, D, or E felony if committed by an adult.
(3) The court dismisses under G.S. 7B-2411 the petition that alleges delinquency
for an offense that would be a Class A, B1, B2, C, D, or E felony if committed
by an adult.
(4) The court issues a dispositional order under Article 25 of Chapter 7B of the
General Statutes including, but not limited to, an order of probation that
requires school attendance, concerning a juvenile alleged or found delinquent
for an offense that would be a felony if committed by an adult.
(5) The court m odifies or vacates any order or disposition under G.S. 7B-2600
concerning a juvenile alleged or found delinquent for an offense that would
be a Class A, B1, B2, C, D, or E felony if committed by an adult.
Notification of the school principal in person or b y telephone shall be made before the
beginning of the next school day. Delivery shall be made as soon as practicable but at least within
five days of the action. Delivery shall be made in person or by certified mail. Notification that a
petition has been f iled shall describe the nature of the offense. Notification of a dispositional
order, a modified or vacated order, or a transfer to superior court shall describe the court's action
and any applicable disposition requirements. As used in this subsection, the term "offense" does
not include any offense under Chapter 20 of the General Statutes."

REVISE LAW GOVERNING THE RECORDING OF COURT PROCEEDINGS
SECTION 11.(a) G.S. 15A-1241 reads as rewritten:
"§ 15A-1241. Record of proceedings.
(a) The trial judge mus t require that the reporter make a true, complete, and accurate
record of all statements from the bench and all other proceedings except:
(1) Selection of the jury in noncapital cases;
(2) Opening statements and final arguments of counsel to the jury; and
(3) Arguments of counsel on questions of law.
(b) Upon motion of any party or on the judge's own motion, proceedings excepted under
subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of this section must be recorded. The motion for
recordation of jury arguments must be made before the commencement of any argument and if

Page 14 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
one argument is recorded all must be. Upon suggestion of improper argument, when no
recordation has been requested or ordered, the judge in his discretion may require the remainder
to be recorded.
…."
SECTION 11.(b) This section is effective when it becomes law and applies to
proceedings commenced on or after that date.

INCREASE THE PUNISHMENT FOR COMMITTING THE OFFENSE OF FAILURE
TO YIELD THAT RESULTS IN SERIOUS BODILY INJURY
SECTION 12.(a) G.S. 20-160.1(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) Unless the conduct is covered under some other law providing greater punishment, a
person who commits the offense of failure to yield while approaching or entering an intersection,
turning at a stop or yield sign, entering a roadway, upon the approach of an emergency vehicle,
or at highway construction or maintenance shall be punished under this section. When there is
serious bodily injury but no death resulting from the violation, the violator is guilty of a Class 2
misdemeanor, which shall be fined include a fine of five hundred dollars ($500.00) and and, upon
conviction, revocation of the violator's drivers license or commercial drivers license shall be
suspended for 90 days."
SECTION 12.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

CLARIFY THE PENALTY FOR FAILURE TO YIELD THE RIGHT -OF-WAY TO A
BLIND OR PARTIALLY BLIND PEDESTRIAN
SECTION 13.(a) G.S. 20-175.2 reads as rewritten:
"§ 20-175.2. Right-of-way at crossings, intersections and traffic-control signal points; white
cane or guide dog to serve as signal for the blind.
At any street, road or highway crossing or intersection, where the movement of traffic is not
regulated by a traffic officer or by traffic -control signals, any blind or partially blind pedestrian
shall be entitled to the right -of-way at such crossing or intersection, if such blind or partially
blind pedestrian shall extend before him at arm's length a cane white in color or white tipped with
red, or if such person is accompanied by a guide dog. Upon receiving such a signal, all vehicles
at or approaching such intersection or crossing shall come to a full stop, le aving a clear lane
through which such pedestrian may pass, and such vehicle shall remain stationary until such blind
or partially blind pedestrian has completed the passage of such crossing or intersection. At any
street, road or highway crossing or inters ection, where the movement of traffic is regulated by
traffic-control signals, blind or partially blind pedestrians shall be entitled to the right -of-way if
such person having such cane or accompanied by a guide dog shall be partly across such crossing
or intersection at the time the traffic-control signals change, and all vehicles shall stop and remain
stationary until such pedestrian has completed passage across the intersection or crossing. Any
person who fails to yield the right -of-way to a blind or partially blind pedestrian as required by
this section is guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor."
SECTION 13.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

INCREASE PUNISHMENT FOR FENTANYL OFFENSES
SECTION 14.(a) G.S. 90-95 reads as rewritten:
"§ 90-95. Violations; penalties.
(a) Except as authorized by this Article, it is unlawful for any person:
(1) To manufacture, sell or deliver, or possess with intent to manufacture, sell or
deliver, a controlled substance;

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 15
(2) To create, sell or deliver, or possess with intent to sell or deliver, a counterfeit
controlled substance;
(3) To possess a controlled substance.
(b) Except as provided in subsections (h) and (i) of this section, any person who violates
G.S. 90-95(a)(1) with respect to:
(1) A controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II shall be punished as a
Class H felon, except as follows: (i) the sale of a controlled substance
classified in Schedule I or II shall be punished as a Class G felony, and (ii) the
manufacture of methamphetamine shall be punished as provided by
subdivision (1a) of this subsection.subsection, and (iii) any violation of
G.S. 90-95(a)(1) involving fentanyl or carfent anil, or any salt, compound,
derivative, or preparation thereof, or any mixture containing any of these
substances shall be punished as provided in subdivision (1b) of this
subsection.
(1a) The manufacture of methamphetamine shall be punished as a Class C felony
unless the offense was one of the following: pack aging or repackaging
methamphetamine, or labeling or relabeling the methamphetamine container.
The offense of packaging or repackaging methamphetamine, or labeling or
relabeling the methamphetamine container shall be punished as a Class H
felony.
(1b) Any violation of G.S. 90-95(a)(1) involving f entanyl or carfentanil , or any
salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof, or any mixture containing
any of these substances shall be punished as a Class F felony.
(2) A controlled substance classified in Schedule III, IV, V, or VI shall be
punished as a Class I felon, except that the sale of a controlled substance
classified in Schedule III, IV, V, or VI shall be punished as a Class H felon.
The transfer of less than 5 grams of marijuana for no remuneratio n shall not
constitute a delivery in violation of G.S. 90-95(a)(1).
(c) Any person who violates G.S. 90-95(a)(2) shall be punished as a Class I felon.
(d) Except as provided in subsections (h) and (i) of this section, any person who violates
G.S. 90-95(a)(3) with respect to:
(1) A controlled substance classified in Schedule I shall be punished as a Class I
felon. However, if the controlled substance is MDPV and the quantity of the
MDPV is 1 gram or less, the violation shall be punishable as a Class 1
misdemeanor.
(2) A controlled substance classified in Schedule II, III, or IV shall be guilty of a
Class 1 misdemeanor. If the controlled substance exceeds four tablets,
capsules, or other dosage units or equivalent quantity of hydromorphone or if
the quantity o f the controlled substance, or combination of the controlled
substances, exceeds one hundred tablets, capsules or other dosage units, or
equivalent quantity, the violation shall be punishable as a Class I felony. If the
controlled substance is methamphetam ine, amphetamine, phencyclidine,
cocaine, fentanyl, or carfentanil or cocaine and any salt, isomer, salts of
isomers, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof, or coca leaves and any
salt, isomer, salts of isomers, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca
leaves, or any salt, isomer, salts of isomers, compound, derivative or
preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of
these substances (except decocanized coca leaves or any extraction of coca
leaves which does not cont ain cocaine or ecgonine), the violation shall be
punishable as a Class I felony. If the controlled substance is fentanyl or
carfentanil, or any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof, or any

Page 16 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
mixture containing any of these substances , the violation is punishable as a
Class H felony.
…
(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following provisions apply except as
otherwise provided in this Article:
…
(4) Any Except as provided in subdivision (4c) of this subsection any person who
sells, manufactures, delivers, transports, or possesses four grams or more of
opium, opiate, or opioid, or any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of
opium, opiate, or opioid (except apomorphine, nalbuphine, analoxone and
naltrexone and their respect ive salts), including heroin, or any mixture
containing such substance, shall be guilty of a felony which felony shall be
known as "trafficking in opium, opiate, opioid, or heroin" and if the quantity
of such controlled substance or mixture involved:
a. Is four grams or more, but less than 14 grams, such person shall be
punished as a Class F felon and shall be sentenced to a minimum term
of 70 months and a maximum term of 93 months in the State's prison
and shall be fined as follows:
1. A fine of five hundr ed thousand dollars ($500,000) if the
controlled substance is heroin, fentanyl, or carfentanil, heroin,
or any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof, or
any mixture containing any of these substances.that substance.
2. A fine of not less than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) for any
controlled substance described in this subdivision and not
otherwise subject to sub -sub-subdivision 1. of this
sub-subdivision.
b. Is 14 grams or more, but less than 28 grams, such person shall be
punished as a Class E felon and shall be sentenced to a minimum term
of 90 months and a maximum term of 120 months in the State's prison
and shall be fined as follows:
1. A fine of seven hundred fifty thousand dollars ($750,000) if
the controlled substance is heroin, fentan yl, or carfentanil,
heroin, or any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation
thereof, or any mixture containing any of these substances.that
substance.
2. A fine of not less than one hundred thousand dollars
($100,000) for any controlled substance described in this
subdivision and not otherwise subject to sub -sub-subdivision
1. of this sub-subdivision.
c. Is 28 grams or more, such person shall be punished as a Class C felon
and shall be sentenced to a minimum term of 225 months and a
maximum term of 282 months in the State's prison and shall be fined
as follows:
1. A fine of one million dollars ($1,000,000) if the controlled
substance is heroin, fentanyl, or carfentanil, heroin, or any salt,
compound, derivative, or preparation thereof, or any mixtur e
containing any of these substances.that substance.
2. A fine of not less than five hundred thousand dollars
($500,000) for any controlled substance described in this
subdivision and not otherwise subject to sub -sub-subdivision
1. of this sub-subdivision.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 17
…
(4c) Any person who sells, manufactures, delivers, transports, or possesses four
grams or more of fentanyl or carfentanil, or any salt, compound, derivative, or
preparation of such substance, or any mixture containing such substance, shall
be guilty of a felony which felony shall be known as "trafficking in fentanyl
or carfentanil " and if the quantity of such controlled substance or mixture
involved:
a. Is four grams or more, but less than 14 grams, such person shall be
punished as a Class E felon and shall be sentenced to a minimum term
of 90 months and a maximum term of 120 months in the State's prison
and shall be fined five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).
b. Is 14 grams or more, but less than 28 grams, such person shall be
punished as a Class D felon and shall be sentenced to a minimum term
of 175 months and a maximum term of 222 months in the State's prison
and shall be fined seven hundred fifty thousand dollars ($750,000).
c. Is 28 grams or more, such person shall be punished as a Class C felon
and shall be sentenced to a minimum term of 225 months and a
maximum term of 282 months in the State 's prison and shall be fined
one million dollars ($1,000,000).
…."
SECTION 14.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

SET LIMITS ON MOTIONS FOR APPROPRIATE RELIEF IN NONCAPITAL CASES
SECTION 15.(a) G.S. 15A-1415 reads as rewritten:
"§ 15A-1415. Grounds for appropriate relief which may be asserted by defendant after
verdict; limitation as to time.
(a) At any time after verdict, a noncapital defendant by motion may seek appropriate
relief upon any of the grounds enumerated in this section. In a capital case, a defendant may file
a postconviction motion for appropriate relief shall be filed based on any of the grounds
enumerated in this section within 120 days from the latest of any of the following:
(1) The court's judgment has been filed, but the defendant failed to perfect a
timely appeal;appeal.
(2) The mandate issued by a court of the appellate division on direct appeal
pursuant to N.C.R. App. P. 32(b) and the time for filing a petition for writ of
certiorari to the United States Supreme Court has expired without a petition
being filed;filed.
(3) The United States Supreme Court denied a timely petition for writ of certiorari
of the decision on direct appeal by the Supreme Court of North
Carolina;Carolina.
(4) Following the denial of discretionary review by the Supreme Court of North
Carolina, the United States Supreme Court denied a timely petition for writ of
certiorari seeking review of the decision on direct appeal by the North
Carolina Court of Appeals;Appeals.
(5) The United States Supreme Court granted the defendant's or the State's timely
petition for writ of certiorari of the decision on direct appeal by the Supreme
Court of North Carolina or North Carolina Court of Appeals, but subsequently
left the defendant's conviction and sentence undisturbed; orundisturbed.
(6) The appointment of postconviction counsel for an indigent capital defendant.

Page 18 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
(a1) In a noncapital case, a defendant may file a postconviction motion for appropriate
relief based on any of the grounds enumerated in this section within seven years from the latest
of any of the events listed in subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (a) of this section.
(b) The following are the only grounds which the defendant may assert by a motion for
appropriate relief made more than 10 days after entry of judgment:
(1) The acts charged in the criminal pleading did not at the time they were
committed constitute a violation of criminal law.
(2) The trial court lacked jurisdiction over the person of the defendant or over the
subject matter.
(3) The conviction was obtained in violation of the Constitution of the United
States or the Constitution of North Carolina.
(4) The defendant was convicted or sentenced under a statute that was in violation
of the Constitution of the United States or the Constitution of North Carolina.
(5) The conduct for which the defendant was prosecuted was protected by the
Constitution of the United States or the Constitution of North Carolina.
(6) Repealed by Session Laws 1995 (Regular Session, 1996), c. 719, s. 1,
effective June 21, 1996.
(7) There has been a significant change in law, either substantive or procedural,
applied in the proceedings leading to the defendant's conviction or sentence,
and retroactive application of the changed legal standard is required.
(8) The sentence imposed was unauthorized at the time imposed, contained a type
of sentence disposition or a term of imprisonment not authorized for the
particular class of offense and prior record or conviction leve l was illegally
imposed, or is otherwise invalid as a matter of law. However, a motion for
appropriate relief on the grounds that the sentence imposed on the defendant
is not supported by evidence introduced at the trial and sentencing hearing
must be made before the sentencing judge.
(9) The defendant is in confinement and is entitled to release because his sentence
has been fully served.
(10) The defendant was convicted of a nonviolent offense as defined in
G.S. 15A-145.9; the defendant's participation in the offense was a result of
having been a victim of human trafficking under G.S. 14-43.11, sexual
servitude under G.S. 14-43.13, or the federal Trafficking Victims Protection
Act (22 U.S.C. § 7102(13)); and the defendant seeks to have the conviction
vacated.
(c) Notwithstanding the time limitations herein, a defendant at any time after verdict may
by a motion for appropriate relief, raise the ground that evidence any of the following claims:
(1) Evidence is available which was unknown or unavailable to the defendant at
the time of trial, which could not with due diligence have been discovered or
made available at that time, including recanted testimony, and which has a
direct and material bearing upon the defendant's eligibility for the death
penalty or the defendant's guilt or innocence. A motion based upon such newly
discovered evidence must be filed within a reasonable time of its discovery.
(2) In a noncapital case, the defen dant can demonstrate pursuant to
G.S. 15A-1419(c) that one of the following exists:
a. Good cause for excusing the grounds for denial listed in subsection (a)
of G.S. 15A-1419 and actual prejudice resulting from the defendant 's
claim.
b. Failure to consider the defendant 's claim will result in a fundamental
miscarriage of justice.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 19
(3) There has been a significant change in law, either substantive or procedural,
applied in the proceedings leading to the defendant 's conviction or sentence,
and retroactive application of the changed legal standard is required.
(4) The defendant is in confinement and is entitled to release because his sentence
has been fully served.
(c1) Notwithstanding the time limitations otherwise provided in this section, a defendant
may file a motion for appropriate relief based on any of the grounds enumerated in this section
at any time if the district attorney for the prosecutorial district where the case originated consents
to the filing of the motion.
…."
SECTION 15.(b) G.S. 15A-1419(a)(4) reads as rewritten:
"(4) The defendant failed to file a timely motion f or appropriate relief as required
by G.S. 15A-1415(a).subsection (a) or (a1) of G.S. 15A-1415."
SECTION 15.(c) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
verdicts entered on or after that date.

REPEAL FILIAL RESPONSIBILITY CRIME
SECTION 16.(a) G.S. 14-326.1 is repealed.
SECTION 16.(b) This section becomes effective July 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

CLARIFYING CHANGES REGARDING MISDEMEANOR CRIME OF DOMESTIC
VIOLENCE
SECTION 17.(a) G.S. 14-33 is amended by adding a new subsection to read:
"(e) An offense under this section shall not be considered a lesser included offense of
misdemeanor crime of domestic violence under G.S. 14-32.5."
SECTION 17.(b) G.S. 14-33.2 reads as rewritten:
"§ 14-33.2. Habitual misdemeanor assault.
A person commits the offense of habitual misdemeanor assault if that person (i) violates any
of the provisions of G.S. 14-33 and causes physical injury, G.S. 14-32.5, or G.S. 14-34, and (ii)
has two or more prior convictions for either misdemeanor or assault, felony assault, or a violation
of G.S. 14-32.5, with the earlier of the two prior convictions occurring no more than 15 years
prior to the date of the current violation. A conviction unde r this section shall not be used as a
prior conviction for any other habitual offense statute. A person convicted of violating this
section is guilty of a Class H felony."
SECTION 17.(c) G.S. 15A-401(b) reads as rewritten:
"(b) Arrest by Officer Without a Warrant. –
(1) Offense in Presence of Officer. – An officer may arrest without a warrant any
person who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a criminal
offense, or has violated a pretrial release order entered under G.S. 15A-534 or
G.S. 15A-534.1(a)(2), in the officer's presence.
(2) Offense Out of Presence of Officer. – An officer may arrest without a warrant
any person who the officer has probable cause to believe:believe has
committed or violated any of the following:
a. Has committed a felony; orA felony.
b. Has committed a misdemeanor, and:A misdemeanor, when the person
meets at least one of the following criteria:
1. Will not be apprehended unless immediately arrested,
orarrested.
2. May cause physical injury to himself or others, or damage to
property unless immediately arrested; orarrested.

Page 20 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
c. Has committed a A misdemeanor under G.S. 14-72.1, 14 -134.3,
20-138.1, or 20-138.2; or20-138.2.
d. Has committed a A misdemeanor under G.S. 14-33(a), 14 -33(c)(1),
14-33(c)(2), or 14 -34 when the offense was committed by a person
with whom the alleged victim has a personal relationship as defined in
G.S. 50B-1; orG.S. 50B-1.
e. Has committed a A misdemeanor under G.S. 50B-4.1(a);
orG.S. 50B-4.1(a).
f. Has violated a A pretrial release order entered under G.S. 15A-534 or
G.S. 15A-534.1(a)(2).
g. A misdemeanor under G.S. 14-32.5.
…."
SECTION 17.(d) G.S. 15A-534.1(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) In all cases in which the defendant is charged with assault on, stalking,
communicating a threat to, or committing a felony provided in Articles 7B, 8, 10, or 15 of Chapter
14 of the General Statutes upon a spouse or former spouse, a person with whom the defendant
lives or has lived as if married, or a person with whom the defendant is or has been in a dating
relationship as defined in G.S. 50B-1(b)(6), with domestic criminal trespass, with violation of
G.S. 14-32.5, or with violation of an order entered pursuant to Chapter 50B, Domestic Violence,
of the General Statutes, the judicial official who determines the conditions of pretrial release shall
be a judge. The judge shall direct a law enforcement officer or a district attorney to provide a
criminal history report for the defendant and shall consider the crimin al history when setting
conditions of release. After setting conditions of release, the judge shall return the report to the
providing agency or department. No judge shall unreasonably delay the determination of
conditions of pretrial release for the purpose of reviewing the defendant's criminal history report.
The following provisions shall apply in addition to the provisions of G.S. 15A-534:
(1) Upon a determination by the judge that the immediate release of the defendant
will pose a danger of injury to t he alleged victim or to any other person or is
likely to result in intimidation of the alleged victim and upon a determination
that the execution of an appearance bond as required by G.S. 15A-534 will
not reasonably assure that such injury or intimidation will not occur, a judge
may retain the defendant in custody for a reasonable period of time while
determining the conditions of pretrial release.
(2) A judge may impose the following conditions on pretrial release:
a. That the defendant stay away from the home, school, business or place
of employment of the alleged victim.
b. That the defendant refrain from assaulting, beating, molesting, or
wounding the alleged victim.
c. That the defendant refrain from removing, damaging or injuring
specifically identified property.
d. That the defendant may visit his or her child or children at times and
places provided by the terms of any existing order entered by a judge.
e. That the defendant abstain from alcohol consumption, as verified by
the use of a continuous alcohol monitoring system, of a type approved
by the Division of Community Supervision and Reentry of the
Department of Adult Correction, and that any violation of this
condition be reported by the monitoring provider to the district
attorney.
The conditions set forth above may be imposed in addition to requiring that
the defendant execute a secured appearance bond.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 21
(3) Should the defendant be mentally ill and dangerous to himself or others or a
substance abuser and dangerous to himself or others, the provisions of Article
5 of Chapter 122C of the General Statutes shall apply."
SECTION 17.(e) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

CREATE FELONY CRIME OF HABITUAL DOMESTIC VIOLENCE
SECTION 18.(a) Article 8 of Chapter 14 of the General Statutes is amended by
adding a new section to read:
"§ 14-32.6. Habitual domestic violence.
(a) A person commits the offense of habitual domestic violence if that person commits
an offense under G.S. 14-32.5, or commits an assault where the person is related to the victim by
one or more of the relationship descriptions set forth in G.S. 14-32.5, and has two or more prior
convictions that include either of the following combination of offenses, with the earlier of the
two prior convictions occurring no more than 15 years prior to the date of the current violation:
(1) Two or more convictions of an offense under G.S. 14-32.5 or an offense
committed in an other jurisdiction substantially similar to an offense under
G.S. 14-32.5.
(2) One prior conviction of an offense described in subdivision (1) of this
subsection and at least one prior conviction of an offense in this State or
another jurisdiction involving an assault where the person is related to the
victim by one or more of the relationship descriptions set forth in
G.S. 14-32.5.
(b) A conviction under this section shall not be used as a prior conviction for any other
habitual offense statute. A person convicted of violating this section is guilty of a Class H felony
for the first offense. Subsequent convictions for violating this section shall each be punished at a
level which is one offense class higher than the offense class of the most recent prior conviction
under this section, not to exceed a Class C felony."
SECTION 18.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

REMOVE CONCURRENT SENTENCING DEFAULT
SECTION 19.(a) G.S. 15A-1354(a) reads as rewritten:
"(a) Authority of Court. – When multiple sentences of imprisonment are imposed on a
person at the same time or when a term of imprisonment is imposed on a person who is already
subject to an undischarged term of imprisonment, in cluding a term of imprisonment in another
jurisdiction, the sentences may run either concurrently or consecutively, as determined by the
court. If not specified or not required by statute to run consecutively, sentences shall run
concurrently.The court sha ll make a finding on the record stating the reasoning for the
determination of the court."
SECTION 19.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies to
offenses committed on or after that date.

RETRIEVAL OF FIREARMS, AMMUNITION, AND PER MITS SURRENDERED
PURSUANT TO AN EX PARTE, EMERGENCY, OR PERMANENT DOMESTIC
VIOLENCE PROTECTIVE ORDER
SECTION 20.(a) G.S. 50B-3.1 reads as rewritten:
"§ 50B-3.1. Surrender and disposal of firearms; violations; exemptions.
(a) Required Surrender of Firearms. – Upon issuance of an emergency or ex parte order
pursuant to this Chapter, the court shall order the defendant to surrender to the sheriff all firearms,
machine guns, ammunition, permits to purchase firearms, and permits to carry concealed firearms

Page 22 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
that are in the care, custody, possession, ownership, or control of the defendant if the court finds
any of the following factors:
(1) The use or threatened use of a deadly weapon by the defendant or a pattern of
prior conduct involving the use or threatened use of violence with a firearm
against persons.
(2) Threats to seriously injure or kill the aggrieved party or minor child by the
defendant.
(3) Threats to commit suicide by the defendant.
(4) Serious injuries inflicted upon the aggrieved party or minor ch ild by the
defendant.
(b) Ex Parte or Emergency Hearing. – The court shall inquire of the plaintiff, at the ex
parte or emergency hearing, the presence of, ownership of, or otherwise access to firearms by the
defendant, as well as ammunition, permits to pu rchase firearms, and permits to carry concealed
firearms, and include, whenever possible, identifying information regarding the description,
number, and location of firearms, ammunition, and permits in the order.
(c) Ten-Day Hearing. – The court, at the 10 -day hearing, shall inquire of the defendant
the presence of, ownership of, or otherwise access to firearms by the defendant, as well as
ammunition, permits to purchase firearms, and permits to carry concealed firearms, and include,
whenever possible, iden tifying information regarding the description, number, and location of
firearms, ammunition, and permits in the order.
(d) Surrender. – Upon service of the order, the defendant shall immediately surrender to
the sheriff possession of all firearms, machine guns, ammunition, permits to purchase firearms,
and permits to carry concealed firearms that are in the care, custody, possession, ownership, or
control of the defendant. In the event that weapons cannot be surrendered at the time the order is
served, the defendant shall surrender the firearms, ammunitions, and permits to the sheriff within
24 hours of service at a time and place specified by the sheriff. The sheriff shall store the firearms
or contract with a licensed firearms dealer to provide storage.
(1) If the court orders the defendant to surrender firearms, ammunition, and
permits, the court shall inform the plaintiff and the defendant of the terms of
the protective order and include these terms on the face of the order, including
that the defendant i s prohibited from possessing, purchasing, or receiving or
attempting to possess, purchase, or receive a firearm for so long as the
protective order or any successive protective order is in effect. The terms of
the order shall include instructions as to how the defendant may request
retrieval of any firearms, ammunition, and permits surrendered to the sheriff
when the protective order is no longer in effect. The terms shall also include
notice of the penalty for violation of G.S. 14-269.8.
(2) The sheriff may charge the defendant a reasonable fee for the storage of any
firearms and ammunition taken pursuant to a protective order. The fees are
payable to the sheriff. The sheriff shall transmit the proceeds of these fees to
the county finance officer. The fees shall be used by the sheriff to pay the costs
of administering this section and for other law enforcement purposes. The
county shall expend the restricted funds for these purposes only. The sheriff
shall not release firearms, ammunition, or permits without a court order
granting the release. release, unless release without a court order is authorized
pursuant to subsection (e) of this section. The defendant must remit all fees
owed prior to the authorized return of any firearms, ammunition, or permits.
The sheriff shall not incur any civil or criminal liability for alleged damage or
deterioration due to storage or transportation of any firearms or ammunition
held pursuant to this section.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 23
(e) Retrieval. – If the court does not enter a protective order when t he ex parte or
emergency order expires, the defendant may retrieve any weapons surrendered to the sheriff
unless Unless the court finds that the defendant is precluded from owning or possessing a firearm
pursuant to State or federal law or final dispositio n of any pending criminal charges committed
against the person that is the subject of the current protective order.order, the defendant may
retrieve any weapons surrendered to the sheriff without additional order of the court upon the
occurrence of one of the following conditions:
(1) The court does not enter a protective order w hen the ex parte or emergency
order expires.
(2) The protective order is denied by the court following a hearing.
Prior to release of any firearms to the defendant pursuant to this subsection, the sheriff shall
verify through a criminal history check conducted through the National Instant Criminal
Background Check System (NICS) that the defendant is not prohibited from possessing or
receiving a firearm pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 922 or any State law and the defendant does not have
any pending criminal charges committed against the person that is the subject of the current
protective order or pending charges that, if convicted, would prohibit the defendant from
possessing a firearm.
(f) Motion for Return. Return by Defendant. – The defendant may request the return of
any firearms, ammunition, or permits surrendered by filing a motion with the court at the
expiration of the current order or final disposition of any pending criminal charges committed
against the person that is the subject of the current protective order and not later than 90 days
after the expiration of the current order or final disposition of any pending criminal charges
committed against the person that is the subject of t he current protective order. Upon receipt of
the motion, the court shall schedule a hearing and provide written notice to the plaintiff who shall
have the right to appear and be heard and to the sheriff who has control of the firearms,
ammunition, or permits. The court shall determine whether the defendant is subject to any State
or federal law or court order that precludes the defendant from owning or possessing a firearm.
The inquiry shall include:
(1) Whether the protective order has been renewed.
(2) Whether the defendant is subject to any other protective orders.
(3) Whether the defendant is disqualified from owning or possessing a firearm
pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 922 or any State law.
(4) Whether the defendant has any pending criminal charges, in either State or
federal court, committed against the person that is the subject of the current
protective order.
The court shall deny the return of firearms, ammunition, or permits if the court finds that the
defendant is precluded from owning or possessing a fi rearm pursuant to State or federal law or
if the defendant has any pending criminal charges, in either State or federal court, committed
against the person that is the subject of the current protective order until the final disposition of
those charges.
(g) Motion for Return by Third -Party Owner. – A third -party owner of firearms,
ammunition, or permits who is otherwise eligible to possess such items may file a motion
requesting the return to said third party of any such items in the possession of the sheri ff seized
as a result of the entry of a domestic violence protective order. The motion must may be filed not
later than 30 days after the at any time following the seizure of the items by the sheriff. sheriff
prior to their disposal pursuant to subsection (h) of this section. Upon receipt of the third party's
motion, the court shall schedule a hearing and provide written notice to all parties and the sheriff.
The court shall order return of the items to the third party unless the court determines that the
third party is disqualified from owning or possessing said items pursuant to State or federal law.
If the court denies the return of said items to the third party, the items shall be disposed of by the
sheriff as provided in subsection (h) of this section.

Page 24 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
(h) Disposal of Firearms. – If the After notice to the defendant and all parties known or
believed to have a n ownership or possessory interest in the firearm , including any third-party
owner, the sheriff who has control of the firearms, ammunition, or permits may apply to the court
for an order of disposition of the firearms, ammunition, or permits under any of the following
circumstances:
(1) Both of the following criteria are met:
a. The defendant does not file or third-party owner has not filed a motion
requesting the return of any firearms, ammunition, or permits
surrendered within the time period prescribed by this section, if the
court determines 90 days after the expiration of the current order or
final disposition of any pending criminal charges committed against
the person that is the subject of the current protective order.
b. The defendant has not retrieved the firearms pursuant to subsection (e)
of this section within 90 days after the expiration of the current order
or final disposition of any pending criminal charges committed against
the person that is the subject of the current protective order.
(2) The court has determined that the defendant or third-party owner is precluded
from regaining possession of any firearms, ammunition, or permits
surrendered, or if the surrendered.
(3) The defendant or third-party owner fails to remit all fees owed for the storage
of the firearms or ammunition within 30 days of either (i) the entry of the order
granting the return of the firearms, ammunition, or permits, the sheriff who
has control of the firearms, ammunition, or permits shall give notice to the
defendant, and the sheriff shall apply to the court for an order of disposition
of the firearms, ammunition, or permits. or (ii) a request to retrieve the
firearms, ammunition, or permits pursuant to subsection (e) of this section.
The judge, after a hearing, may order the disposition of the firearms, ammunition, or permits
in one or more of the ways authorized by law, including subdivision (4), (4b), (5), or (6) of
G.S. 14-269.1. If a sale by the sheriff does occur, any proceeds from the sale after deducting any
costs associated with the sale, and in accordance with all applicable State and federal law, shall
be provided to the defendant, defendant or any known thi rd-party owner if requested by the
defendant or any known third-party owner by motion made before the hearing or at the hearing
and if ordered by the judge.
(i) It is unlawful for any person subject to a protective order prohibiting the possession
or purchase of firearms to:
(1) Fail to surrender all firearms, ammunition, permits to purchase firearms, and
permits to carry concealed firearms to the sheriff as ordered by the court;
(2) Fail to disclose all information pertaining to the possession of firearms,
ammunition, and permits to purchase and permits to carry concealed firearms
as requested by the court; or
(3) Provide false information to the court pertaining to any of these items.
(j) Violations. – In accordance with G.S. 14-269.8, it is unlawful for any person to
possess, purchase, or receive or attempt to possess, purchase, or receive a firearm, as defined in
G.S. 14-409.39(2), machine gun, ammunition, or permits to purchase or carry concealed firearms
if ordered by the court for so long as that protective order or any successive protective order
entered against that person pursuant to this Chapter is in effect. Any defendant violating the
provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class H felony.
(k) Official Use Exemption. – This section shall not prohibit law enforcement officers
and members of any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, not otherwise prohibited
under federal law, from possessing or using firearms for official use only.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 25
(l) Nothing in this section is intended to limit the discretion of the court in granting
additional relief as provided in other sections of this Chapter."
SECTION 20.(b) This section becomes effective December 1, 2025, and applies (i)
to firearms, ammunition, and permits surrendered on or after that date and (ii) beginning February
1, 2026, to firearms, ammunition, and permits surrendered before December 1, 2025.

PROTECT MINOR VICTIMS OF AND WITNESSES TO CRIME
SECTION 21. G.S. 132-1.4(c) reads as rewritten:
"(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, and unless otherwise prohibited by
law, the following information shall be public records within the meaning of
G.S. 132-1.G.S. 132-1:
…
(4) The contents of "911" and other emergency telephone calls received by or on
behalf of public law enforcement agencies, except for such contents any of the
following:
a. Contents of a "911" or other emergency telephone call that reveal
reveals the natural voice, name, address, telephone number, or other
information that may identify the caller, victim, or witness. In order to
protect the identity of the complaining witness, the contents of "911"
and other emergency telephone calls may be released pursuant t o this
section in the form of a written transcript or altered voice reproduction;
provided that the original shall be provided under process to be used
as evidence in any relevant civil or criminal proceeding.
b. Contents of a ny "911" or other emergency te lephone call where the
caller is less than 18 years of age.
…."

EXTEND SUNSET DATE FOR USE OF SECURITY GUARDS AT STATE PRISONS
SECTION 22. Section 4.15(c) of S.L. 2020 -3, as amended by Section 2 of S.L.
2020-15, Section 19D.2 of S.L. 2021 -180, Section 12 of S.L. 2022 -58, Section 19D.1 of S.L.
2022-74, and Section 9(a) of S.L. 2023-121, reads as rewritten:
"SECTION 4.15.(c) This section is effective when it becomes law and expires on June 30,
2025.2027."

ALLOW LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES WITH ONLINE REPORTING SYSTEMS
TO ACCEPT REPORTS OF LOST OR STOLEN FIREARMS FROM INDIVIDUALS
SECTION 23.(a) Article 53B of Chapter 14 of the General Statutes is amended by
adding a new section to read:
"§ 14-409.44. Online reporting to local law enforcement agency of lost or stolen firearm.
(a) Authorization. – Any local law enforcement agency that has an online crime reporting
system that allows individuals to file online reports of crimes may allow individuals to file online
reports of lost or stolen firearms.
(b) Reports Are Not Public. – Online reports of lost or stolen firearms submitted to any
local law enforcement agency are records of criminal investigations or records of criminal
intelligence information as defined in G.S. 132-1.4 and are not public records a s defined by
G.S. 132-1.
(c) False Repor ts. – A person who willfully makes or causes to be made a false,
deliberately misleading, or unfounded report of a lost or stolen firearm is guilty of a violation
under G.S. 14-225 and shall be punished in accordance with that section.

Page 26 Session Law 2025-70 Senate Bill 429
(d) Construction. – Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a local law
enforcement agency to acquire and implement an online crime r eporting system that allows
individuals to file online reports of crimes."
SECTION 23.(b) This section becomes effective October 1, 2025.

MODIFY LAW GOVERNING ELECTRONIC SIGNATURES OF COURT
DOCUMENTS
SECTION 24.(a) Notwithstanding any provision of law or rule to the contrary, the
chief district court judge and the senior resident superior court judge of their respective districts
may establish rules to allow for the court's manual signature of (i) orders of the court executed
outside of court and (ii) fee application orders from private assigned counsel submitted on the
appropriate form (A OC-CR-225). This section does not apply to criminal judgments. Where
manual signatures are permitted, the party obtaining the court's manual signature shall bear sole
responsibility for filing the executed document with the clerk through eFile and Serve. F or
purposes of this section, the term "manual signature" means the act of physically signing a paper
document with a pen, pencil, or other writing utensil.
SECTION 24.(b) This section is effective when it becomes law and expires two
years after that date.

IOLTA EXPENDITURES
SECTION 25. All funds received by the North Carolina State Bar, and administered
by the North Carolina Interest on Lawyers' Trust Accounts (NC IOLTA) Board of Trustees, from
banks by reason of interest earned on general trust accounts established by lawyers pursuant to
Rule 1.15 -2(b) of the Rules of Professional Conduct, or interest earned on trust or escrow
accounts maintained by settlement agents pursuant to G.S. 45A-9, including any interest
dividends, or other proceeds earned on or with respect to these funds, shall not be encumbered
or expended for the purpose of awarding grants or for any purpose other than administrative costs
during the period beginning July 1, 2025, and ending June 30, 2026.

SEVERABILITY, SAVINGS CLAUSE, AND EFFECTIVE DATE
SECTION 26.(a) If any provision of this act or its application is held invalid, the
invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this act that can be given effect
without the invalid provisions or application and, to this end, the provisions of this act are
severable.
SECTION 26.(b) Prosecutions for offenses committed before the effective date of
this act are not abated or affected by this act, and the statutes that would be applicable but for
this act remain applicable to those prosecutions.

Senate Bill 429 Session Law 2025-70 Page 27
SECTION 26.(c) Except as otherwise provided, this act is effective when it becomes
law.
In the General Assembly read three times and ratified this the 30th day of June, 2025.

s/ Phil Berger
President Pro Tempore of the Senate

s/ Donna McDowell White
Presiding Officer of the House of Representatives

s/ Josh Stein
Governor

Approved 9:24 a.m. this 9th day of July, 2025